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Q1: Which of the following occupations most likely does NOT use apprenticeship training to prepare new employees

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Answer: banker

Q2: Which of the following occupations must adhere to overtime and minimum pay provisions stated in the Fair Labor Standards Act

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Answer: paralegals

Q3: Which of the following occurs in a comparison group design when one of the two groups of participants grows or naturally develops faster than the other group

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Answer: Selection-maturation effect

Q4: Which of the following occurs when a consumer actively acquires a product that is not used or used only sparingly relative to its potential use

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Answer: product nonuse

Q5: Which of the following organizational structural characteristics would most likely result in managerial ethical behavior

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Answer: formal rules

Q6: Which of the following pairs do not illustrate a euphemism

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Answer: Elderly/”old people”

Q7: Which of the following parameter will help in determining probability of getting a result

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Answer: Standard Deviation

Q8: Which of the following performance appraisal method, rates the appraise on various parameters on point scale

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Answer: Graphic rating scale

Q9: Which of the following phases identifies and expresses requirements, prioritizes requirements, updates project plan, and communications the requirements statement

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Answer: None of these —A). logical design phaseB). decisions analysis phaseC). problem analysis phaseD). systems analysis phase

Q10: Which of the following phases is unique to the commercial application package implementation strategy as opposed to the rapid application development strategy

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Answer: business process design

Q11: Which of the following phrases best describes “ethnocentrism”

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Answer: Judging people from a different culture according to the standards of your own culture

Q12: Which of the following phrases should not be used in the close of a bad-news message

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Answer: Avoid all these phrases—If you have further questions, please write.” “I trust our decision is satisfactory.” “We hope you will continue to do business with us.”

Q13: Which of the following policy changes would lead to a decrease in the real interest rate and an increase in investment and saving

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Answer: an expansion of eligibility for Individual Retirement Accounts

Q14: Which of the following prevents potential competitors from entering a monopolist’s market

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Answer: Legal restrictions

Q15: Which of the following problems may result due to skill gaps

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Answer: Poor customer service

Q16: Which of the following process deals with the concept of designing marketing communications programs those coordinate all promotional activities to provide a consistent message across all audiences

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Answer: Integrated marketing communications

Q17: Which of the following processes involves obtaining information (bids and proposals) from prospective sellers

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Answer: Solicitation

Q18: Which of the following Project Scope Management processes involves subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components

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Answer: Scope Definition

Q19: Which of the following provides a set of rights, responsibilities, and obligations the structure the behavior of the employer and the employee

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Answer: The employment contract

Q20: Which of the following provides the best definition of ‘information’

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Answer: Data processed for a purpose

Q21: Which of the following quantitative research questions is superior

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Answer: What effect does playing high school football have on students’ overall grade point average during the football season?

Q22: Which of the following questions does the organization’s mission statement answer

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Answer: What do we want to become?

Q23: Which of the following questions is(are) considered when looking at technical feasibility

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Answer: is the proposed technology or solution practical?D). do we possess the necessary technical expertise?

Q24: Which of the following questions should you not ask the interviewer during a job interview

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Answer: Why has the company been under so much media scrutiny lately?

Q25: Which of the following reasons accounts for utilitarianism dominance among policy makers and administrators

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Answer: It seems obvious that policy questions should be judged by results and consequences.B. Policy experts at all levels are focused on results and getting things done.C. Efficiency is simply another word for maximizing happiness.—all of these

Q26: Which of the following reasons to lose the customer

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Answer: All of above given options —(a) Price related reasons (b) Product related reasons (c) Service-related reasons

Q27: Which of the following recommends the use of services it has experienced in a pleasant way

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Answer: referral market

Q28: Which of the following refers to a narrative description of the work to be accomplished

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Answer: The statement of work (SOW)

Q29: Which of the following refers to any systematic change that occurs over time in the way in which the dependent variable is assessed

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Answer: Instrumentation

Q30: Which of the following refers to Companies often failure to predict changes, either slow or long range to at least calculate their impact on their product and customers

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Answer: Inability to Predict Environmental Reaction

Q31: Which of the following refers to company records showing present performance and promotability of inside candidates for a firm’s top positions

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Answer: personnel replacement charts

Q32: Which of the following refers to imagining different outcomes before a decision is made

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Answer: prefactual thinking

Q33: Which of the following refers to imagining the outcome if a different decision had been made in the past

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Answer: counterfactual thinking

Q34: Which of the following refers to individual’s perception of the performance of the product or service in relation to his or her expectations

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Answer: Customer satisfaction

Q35: Which of the following refers to the cyclical process of collecting and analyzing data during a single research study

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Answer: Interim analysis

Q36: Which of the following refers to the random (chance) occurrences that can affect the outcome of an individual’s decision

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Answer: States of nature (states of the world or events)

Q37: Which of the following relates to enterprise interoperability

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Answer: XML

Q38: Which of the following reports categorizes information for managers who are not interested to wade through the details

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Answer: none of these external detailed exception supplemental

Q39: Which of the following reports presents information with little or no filtering or restrictions

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Answer: none of these—non-filtered summary external exception

Q40: Which of the following represents the customer success factor

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Answer: There is some strength that a customer has in its business

Q41: Which of the following represents the fiftieth percentile, or the middle point in a set of numbers arranged in order of magnitude

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Answer: Median

Q42: Which of the following require input from a large number of functional units and usually control vast resources

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Answer: Matrix or Aggregate projects

Q43: Which of the following restrictions implies that investment exceeds private saving for a closed economy

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Answer: The economy’s government is running a budget surplus

Q44: Which of the following restrictions implies that private saving and investment are equal for a closed economy

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Answer: The economy’s government is running neither a surplus nor a deficit

Q45: Which of the following restrictions implies that saving and investment are equal for a closed economy

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Answer: No restriction is necessary; saving and investment are equal for all closed economies

Q46: Which of the following role a manager performs as a Resource allocator

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Answer: Decisional role

Q47: Which of the following sales force design structures has the following advantages: the salesperson’s job is clearly defined; the salesperson gets credit for all sales made; there is encouragement to build local business relationships; and travel expenses are relatively small

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Answer: territorial sales force

Q48: Which of the following sales force designs is designed around customers in different industries, serving regular customers versus finding new ones, and for major accounts versus regular accounts

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Answer: customer sales force

Q49: Which of the following sampling methods is the best way to select a group of people for a study if you are interested in making statements about the larger population

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Answer: Purposive sampling

Q50: Which of the following sampling techniques is an equal probability selection method (i.e., EPSEM) in which every individual in the population has an equal chance of being selected

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Answer: Simple random samplingb. Systematic samplingc. Proportional stratified samplingd. Cluster sampling using the PPS technique—all of these are EPSEM

Q51: Which of the following Scope Management process involves breaking down a project into smaller manageable units

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Answer: Scope Definition

Q52: Which of the following sentences should not be used in a bad-news message

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Answer: We’re sorry for your inconvenience

Q53: Which of the following set is included in the Mechanisms of Acculturation

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Answer: Recruitment, Empowerment

Q54: Which of the following should be done first in the on-the-job training process

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Answer: familiarizing the trainee with equipment and tools

Q55: Which of the following should be represented on an information flow diagram

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Answer: Source

Q56: Which of the following should not be reason for “rebaselining” in a project

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Answer: Cost variances

Q57: Which of the following should occur during the second step of the on-the-job training process

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Answer: The trainee explains the steps as the supervisor performs the task at a slow pace

Q58: Which of the following should take place in any alleged breach of ethical guidelines

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Answer: finding the section of the code that has been breached

Q59: Which of the following slack times indicates that an activity is on the critical path

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Answer: Zero – 0

Q60: Which of the following smoothing constants would make an exponential smoothing forecast equivalent to a naive forecast

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Answer: 0.5

Q61: Which of the following statement about project phases and project life cycles is true

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Answer: Subprojects may have distinct project life cycles

Q62: Which of the following statement clearly denotes the meaning of the word ‘appraisal’

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Answer: The evaluation of an individual employee’s performance over a given period of time

Q63: Which of the following statement is not true

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Answer: A research proposal is an unorganized and unplanned project

Q64: Which of the following statement is true

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Answer: Both PERT and CPM are duration estimates

Q65: Which of the following statement related to Standards and Regulations is not correct

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Answer: The influence of standards and regulations for a project is always known

Q66: Which of the following statement represents ‘effectiveness’

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Answer: Achieve Organisational goals

Q67: Which of the following statement(s) about project customer and project sponsor is(are) correct

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Answer: 1. Along with the customer, the sponsor threshold for risks should be taken into account2 Along with the customer, this sponsor may provide key events, milestones, and deliverable due dates3 Along with the customer, the sponsor formally accepts the product of the project.4 all of these

Q68: Which of the following statements about 360 degree appraisal is not true

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Answer: The data generated is normally highly accurate, valid and meaningful

Q69: Which of the following statements about a formal report style is not true

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Answer: When you write in a formal style, you use “I” and “you.”

Q70: Which of the following statements about a situation analysis is False

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Answer: A situation analysis is mainly a study of new information that is not already available

Q71: Which of the following statements about diagramming methods is not true

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Answer: GERT is the same as System Dynamics Model

Q72: Which of the following statements about doing a situation analysis is correct

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Answer: Doing a good situation analysis is usually much less expensive than collecting primary data

Q73: Which of the following statements about follow-up messages is not true

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Answer: A letter of acceptance should be sent within one day of receiving an offer

Q74: Which of the following statements about intranets is NOT TRUE

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Answer: Access to websites on an intranet is unrestricted

Q75: Which of the following statements about marketing information systems is true

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Answer: Decision support systems allow managers to see how answers to questions might change in different situations

Q76: Which of the following statements about marketing research is FALSE

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Answer: Because of the risks involved, marketing managers should never base their decision on incomplete information

Q77: Which of the following statements about performance appraisal is not true

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Answer: Performance appraisal reduces managerial control

Q78: Which of the following statements about performance management systems is not true

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Answer: They improve organisational performance in the long-term

Q79: Which of the following statements about performance management systems is not true? Performance management systems are ineffective

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Answer: They improve organizational performance in the long-term

Q80: Which of the following statements about persuasive messages is not true

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Answer: An external persuasive message is one of the most difficult tasks you can undertake

Q81: Which of the following statements about project success criteria is best

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Answer: Completion time is an internal performance measure

Q82: Which of the following statements about resumes is not true

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Answer: The chronological approach emphasizes a list of skills and accomplishments

Q83: Which of the following statements about secondary data is correct

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Answer: Secondary data may be available much faster than primary data

Q84: Which of the following statements about teleconferencing is true

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Answer: It is best for informational meetings, but is ineffective for negotiation

Q85: Which of the following statements about the apprenticeship system is incorrect

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Answer: Full apprenticeships last two years

Q86: Which of the following statements about the body of a formal report is not true

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Answer: Conclusions must never be placed in the body, but always in a separate section

Q87: Which of the following statements about the cost and value of information is False

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Answer: The cost of gathering additional information is always justified by its value

Q88: Which of the following statements about the direct approach is not true

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Answer: The direct approach is best for a skeptical audience

Q89: Which of the following statements about the marketing research process is NOT TRUE

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Answer: Defining the problem is important because this decision will remain unchanged throughout the process

Q90: Which of the following statements about the qualitative-quantitative debate is incorrect

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Answer: Positivism applies to quantitative methods

Q91: Which of the following statements about the question-and-answer period is not true

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Answer: When someone poses a question, keep your attention on the general audience, not on that individual

Q92: Which of the following statements about the term of a bond is correct

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Answer: Interest rates on long-term bonds are usually higher than interest rates on short-term bonds

Q93: Which of the following statements about using the Internet to gather secondary information is FALSE

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Answer: Information on the Internet is readily available and very reliable

Q94: Which of the following statements about XML schemas is incorrect

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Answer: All XML documents must have a schema

Q95: Which of the following statements accurately describes test-retest reliability

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Answer: Measure of consistency of test scores over time

Q96: Which of the following statements are true

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Answer: The more categories or breakdowns you want to make in your data analysis, the larger the sample needed

Q97: Which of the following statements are true about the work breakdown structure

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Answer: The work breakdown structure is deliverable oriented

Q98: Which of the following statements best describes scenario planning

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Answer: Exploring future possibilities by looking at potential outcomes from particular causes and seeking to explain why things might occur

Q99: Which of the following statements comparing the weighted moving average technique and exponential smoothing is true

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Answer: Exponential smoothing typically requires less record-keeping of past data

Q100: Which of the following statements concerning acceptance sampling is false

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Answer: Used when expensive and time-consuming to test the product 100percent.B. The number of allowable defects before lot is rejected is predetermined.C. Inspection and test standards must be established to ensure that procedures can adequately determine conformance and nonconformance.D. If the number of defects found in the sample exceeds the predetermined amount, the entire lot is rejected.—all of these are true