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Q1: The number of prefatory and supplementary components in a report depends on its length and formality

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Answer: True – Answer

Q2: The number of recognized Stock Exchange functioning in India is

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Answer: 25

Q3: The number of shares of Biggie Corporation stock outstanding in 2013 was 100 million. In 2013, Biggie stock paid a dividend of USD2.50 per share and its dividend yield was 2 percent. If the price-earnings ratio is 20, then Biggie’s total earnings in 2013 amounted to

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Answer: USD625 million

Q4: The objective of duration compression includes all the following except

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Answer: Do simulation to calculate distribution of probable reasons for the whole project

Q5: The objective of interview is to get information from interviewee to know about his skills and capabilities

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Answer: Correct – True

Q6: The objective of the securities contracts (regulation) act 1956 are

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Answer: to prevent undesirable transitions in securities

Q7: The objectives of HRM are categorized as___

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Answer: all of these —s/b—All of above—(a) personal objectives (b) functional objectives (c) organisational and social objectives (d) all of these

Q8: The observing method in marketing research

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Answer: is used to gather data without consumers being influenced by the process

Q9: The Occupational Health and Safety___, (OHSA) is the Ontario law that governs health and safety in the workplace

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Answer: Act, 1990

Q10: The old adage, “Don’t put all your eggs in one basket,” is very similar to a modern bit of advice concerning financial matters

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Answer: Diversify.

Q11: The older name for performance appraisal is also describe as___in which one individual is ranked in comparison to others

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Answer: Ranking method

Q12: The one document that should always be used to help identify risk is the

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Answer: WBS

Q13: The one of the following is the best reason for the reduced use of written tests is___

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Answer: They are difficult to validate

Q14: The ongoing process of systematically identifying, assessing, and developing organizational leadership to enhance performance is known as___

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Answer: succession planning

Q15: The only restriction we place on the initial solution of a transportation problem is that

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Answer: all constraints must be satisfied

Q16: The opening of a formal report accomplishes the following except

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Answer: lists the recommendations

Q17: The operations manager has several tools available to deal with MRP system nervousness. Those tools are

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Answer: Time fences and pegging

Q18: The optimal organization structure for the project manager is

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Answer: Dedicated project team

Q19: The organization has only few employees, communication among whom is frequent and___

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Answer: informal

Q20: The organization of the project is very important for successful implementation. Which factor does not have an impact of design of the project organization

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Answer: Schedule Limitations

Q21: The organization that fights to regulate “unfair or deceptive acts or practices” is the

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Answer: Federal Trade Commission

Q22: The organizational design of a project is critical to its successful management. Which of the following is not one of the three basic factors influencing decisions about the design of a project organization

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Answer: Schedule constraints

Q23: The organizational patterns you would use in a letter, memo, or report are different from the organizational patterns of a speech

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Answer: False – Answer

Q24: The organizational process___

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Answer: is the collection of activities that transform inputs into outputs that customers value

Q25: The organizations make their special offer to the customers who will provide the highest profit margins, greatest response rate and___

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Answer: Lowest cost

Q26: The origin of business policy and strategic management can be retraced to

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Answer: 1938

Q27: The output of IRR is the number of years required for the project to repay its initial fixed investment

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q28: The output of the resource planning process is a document “resource requirements”. This a description of what types of resources are required in what quantities

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Answer: …for each element at the lowest level of the work breakdown structure

Q29: The outputs from administration closure includes

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Answer: A project archives

Q30: The outputs of a MRP II system are

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Answer: Capacity requirement plans / stock quantities / stock locations

Q31: The outputs of Contract Administration are correspondence, contract changes, and payment requests

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Answer: Correct – True

Q32: The outputs of scope change control are

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Answer: Scope changes, corrective action and lessons learnt

Q33: The overall duration of the project schedule is not influenced by

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Answer: Using the arrow diagramming method instead of the precedence diagramming method (PDM) of scheduling

Q34: The overall intentions and direction of an organization with regard to quality as formally expressed by top management is a

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Answer: Quality Policy

Q35: The overall strategy of any firm comprises decision on___

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Answer: All of these—a. Customer mix b. Product mix c. Geographic limits of the market to be served d. Objectives

Q36: The p-value is usually 0.01 0r 0.05

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q37: The p-value of a test is the probability of observing a test statistic at least as extreme as the one computed given that the null hypothesis is true

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Answer: Correct – True

Q38: The p-value of a test is the smallest level of significance at which the null hypothesis can be rejected

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Answer: Correct – True

Q39: The p-value used in statistical significance testing should be used to assess how strong a relationship is. For example, if relationship A has a p=.04 and relationship B has a p=.03 then you can conclude that relationship B is stronger than relationship A

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q40: The pair wise comparison approach

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Answer: is a method to split the weights assigned to sub criteria

Q41: The paradigm that leads to more complex products at ever-increasing prices is___

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Answer: Product orientation

Q42: The part of the relevant population that is surveyed by a researcher is called the

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Answer: sample

Q43: The party in whose favour the letter of credit is issued is

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Answer: Beneficiary

Q44: The party that needs the change resulting from the project, and who will be its custodian on completion is the

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Answer: Sponsor

Q45: The Pearson product moment correlation measures the degree of___relationship present between two variables

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Answer: Linear

Q46: The percent of people contacted in a survey who complete a questionnaire is the

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Answer: response rate

Q47: The percent of people contacted who complete a survey questionnaire is the

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Answer: response rate

Q48: The periodic sale abroad of goods at prices below the home market price is

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Answer: Intermittent dumping

Q49: The person generally responsible for the program design strategy, standards, and construction is called a(n)

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Answer: chief programmer

Q50: The person who ensures that systems are developed on time, within budget, and with acceptable quality is a

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Answer: project manager

Q51: The person who is protected under data protection law is known as

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Answer: data subject

Q52: The phase of the SDLC in which an information system is systematically repaired and improved is referred to as

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Answer: maintenance

Q53: The phrase that conveys a complete thought and meaning is called

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Answer: Interdependent clause

Q54: The phrase “final outcome” cannot be revised for conciseness

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Answer: False – Answer

Q55: The physical data flow diagram (PDFD) is used to establish the logical processes and data stores across a network

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Answer: False – Answer

Q56: The planning mode refers to the

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Answer: Strategic formality associated with the large firms that operate under a comprehensive, formal planning system

Q57: The PLC concept

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Answer: contributes to more effective sales planning and marketing strategy

Q58: The PMI officer resolution has just filled final resolution regarding a grievance against you. Can you appeal

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Answer: A resolution by the officer can not be appealed

Q59: The point at which the regression line cuts the vertical axis is

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Answer: sometimes positive, sometimes negative

Q60: The point at which the vertical axis is cut by the regression line

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Answer: is a constant;

Q61: The pooled-variances t-test requires that the two population variances are different

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q62: The positive correlation between teachers’ salaries and the price of liquor is___

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Answer: Spuriousb. Due to a third-variable—Both a and b

Q63: The post hoc fallacy is___

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Answer: Making the argument that because A preceded B, A must have caused B

Q64: The posttest-only design with nonequivalent groups is likely to control for which of the following threats to internal validity

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Answer: History

Q65: The practice of ceasing mass inspections and ending awards based on price is credited to

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Answer: Edward Deming

Q66: The pragmatist philosophy is most closely associated with which of the following positions

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Answer: The compatibility thesis

Q67: The predictor variable is

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Answer: the ‘known’ variable

Q68: The present value of money is lower the further out in the future I expect to spend it

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q69: The price elasticity of demand is the

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Answer: Ratio of the percentage change in quantity demanded to the percentage change in price

Q70: The price elasticity of supply is +4. The price increases by 15percent. Sales were originally 200 units. What will they be now

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Answer: 320 units (The change in quantity supplied will be 4*15percent=60percent; this means the quantity supplied increases by 120 units.)

Q71: The price of a share quoted in the stock exchange is cum dividend when

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Answer: it is inclusive of dividend declared

Q72: The price of a stock will rise if

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Answer: the demand for the stock rises

Q73: The prices of stock traded on exchanges are determined by

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Answer: the supply of, and demand for, the stock

Q74: The pricing strategy in which prices are set lower to actual price to trigger short term sales is classified as

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Answer: promotion pricing

Q75: The pricing strategy used to set prices of the products that are must be used with the main product is called

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Answer: captive product pricing

Q76: The primary advantage of mutual funds is that they

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Answer: allow people to diversify and reduce risk

Q77: The primary communication skills you will use in working with external stakeholders will be

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Answer: Public relations

Q78: The primary communication skills you will use in working with functional managers will be

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Answer: Negotiating

Q79: The primary communication skills you will use in working with members of your project team will be

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Answer: Team building

Q80: The primary communication skills you will use in working with your project sponsor will be

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Answer: Problem solving

Q81: The primary data analysis approach in ethnography is

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Answer: Holistic description and search for cultural themes

Q82: The primary debate about ethics training programs is whether___

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Answer: ethics can be taught

Q83: The primary economic function of the financial system is to

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Answer: match one person’s saving with another person’s investment

Q84: The primary goal of Human resource management is to

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Answer: Facilitate organizational performance

Q85: The primary objective of negotiations is to

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Answer: Define the objective up front and stick with them

Q86: The primary promotional objective for product advertising during the introduction stage of the product life cycle is to: Select correct option

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Answer: Create product awareness

Q87: The primary storage medium for storing archival data is

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Answer: magnetic tape

Q88: The primary tool of information engineering is the structure chart

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Answer: False – Answer

Q89: The principal cause of ethical compromises within business is

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Answer: meeting overly aggressive financial or business objectives

Q90: The principle that one is innocent until proven guilty is a universal principle across all cultures

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Answer: False – Answer

Q91: The Prisoners’ Dilemma is not a constant sum game because

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Answer: some outcomes are better than others for both players

Q92: The probability of a consumer experiencing postpurchase dissonance, as well as the magnitude of such dissonance, is a function of which of the following

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Answer: all of these — A) The degree of commitment or irrevocability of the decision. B) The importance of the decision to the consumer. C) The difficulty of choosing among the alternatives. D) The individual’s tendency to experience anxiety

Q93: The probability of making a Type I error and the level of significance are the same

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Answer: Correct – True

Q94: The procedure for determining the duties and skill requirements of a job and the kind of person who should be hired for it is___

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Answer: job analysis

Q95: The process of choosing individuals who have re1evant qualifications to fill existing or projected job openings is__

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Answer: Selection process

Q96: The process of creating a WBS results in

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Answer: Team buy-in

Q97: The process of dealing with concerns over the authenticity of a source is referred to as

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Answer: External criticism

Q98: The process of deciding how to fill executive positions at a firm is known as___

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Answer: succession planning

Q99: The process of determining the reliability or accuracy of the information contained in the sources collected is known as___

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Answer: Internal criticism

Q100: The process of determining who needs what information, when they need it, and how it will be given to them is

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Answer: Communications planning