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Q1: Which of the following are components of organized sector of stock exchange

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Answer: Investors in securities

Q2: Which of the following are disadvantages of simulation

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Answer: is not usually easily transferable to other problems

Q3: Which of the following are effects of an increased budget deficit

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Answer: at any interest rate the supply of loanable funds is less; a higher interest rate raises private saving

Q4: Which of the following are examples of external communication

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Answer: all of these—with customerswith journalistswith competitors

Q5: Which of the following are examples of indirect costs

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Answer: Salaries of corporate executivesC. Overhead costs—a and c

Q6: Which of the following are features of Belbin’s ‘coordinator’ role

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Answer: Mature, confident, delegates

Q7: Which of the following are features of Belbin’s ‘resource investigator’ role

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Answer: Extroverted, enthusiastic and communicative

Q8: Which of the following are financial intermediaries

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Answer: both banks and mutual funds

Q9: Which of the following are Information Gathering Techniques required for Risk Identification

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Answer: Brainstorming, Delphi Technique, SWOT Analysis

Q10: Which of the following are negative possibilities if quality requirements are not met

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Answer: Overworking team members and poor product quality

Q11: Which of the following are not categorized as Herzberg’s hygiene factors

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Answer: Recognition and responsibility

Q12: Which of the following are not considered part of the hospitality service industry

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Answer: advertising agencies

Q13: Which of the following are not cost of quality

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Answer: Transportation costs

Q14: Which of the following are not example of barriers

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Answer: amount of information, project jargon, and terminology

Q15: Which of the following are NOT important in modelling behavior, as described by Bandura

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Answer: Classical conditioning

Q16: Which of the following are outputs from the Communications Planning process

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Answer: Communications management plan

Q17: Which of the following are outputs of the Scope Verification Process

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Answer: Formal acceptance (“D” is an output of Scope Control Process)

Q18: Which of the following are principles of questionnaire construction

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Answer: Consider using multiple methods when measuring abstract constructsb. Use multiple items to measure abstract constructsc. Avoid double-barreled questions—all of these

Q19: Which of the following are reasons why an allowance should be added to determine the standard time

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Answer: All of these—s/b—All of these—a) Unavoidable delay b) Rest period c) Fatigue

Q20: Which of the following are significant aids to fostering ethics

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Answer: mentoringB. games—both A and B

Q21: Which of the following are the components or parts of an effective performance management system

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Answer: All of these—a. Performance planning b. Data gathering observation and documentation c. Performance diagnosis and coaching

Q22: Which of the following are the disadvantages of individual training

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Answer: All of these—a. No friendly competition of a group b. No motivation of a group c. No team binding and healthy competition

Q23: Which of the following are the important characteristic of effective trainees

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Answer: All of these—a. Involvement and participation b. Well adroit with their task c. Open communication

Q24: Which of the following are the only costs that appear in project contract

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Answer: direct

Q25: Which of the following are the two skills associated with being a good listener

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Answer: To pay attention and to provide feedback

Q26: Which of the following are typical of high-context cultures

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Answer: All of these—Business and social relationships overlap.Information is shared with everyone.Workers do not want or expect detailed information

Q27: Which of the following argues that the value of levered firm is higher than that of the unlevered firm

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Answer: Both (a) and (c).—s/b—Both—(a) Net Income Approach (c) MM Model with taxes

Q28: Which of the following assumes constant kd and ke

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Answer: Net Income Approach

Q29: Which of the following benefits is NOT communicated and delivered by tangible product attributes

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Answer: Style

Q30: Which of the following best describes ‘formal information’

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Answer: Produced by standard procedures. Objective

Q31: Which of the following best describes interpretive validity

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Answer: Accurately portraying the meanings given by the participants to what is being studied

Q32: Which of the following best describes quantitative research

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Answer: an attempt to confirm the researcher’s hypotheses

Q33: Which of the following best describes strategic planning

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Answer: Time horizon: Long-term Level of detail: Summarised Degree of certainty: Uncertain

Q34: Which of the following best describes the decision making required in dealing with customer enquiries

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Answer: Unstructured, operational

Q35: Which of the following best describes the first step in a performance analysis

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Answer: comparing a person’s performance to ideal performance

Q36: Which of the following best describes the project manager’s role during the contracting process

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Answer: They should try to be involved

Q37: Which of the following best describes ‘contributory negligence’

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Answer: The claimant was partially responsible for the injury/damage that occurred

Q38: Which of the following best explains the term ‘union ballots’

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Answer: A ballot is the system by which union members vote for, e.g. industrial action

Q39: Which of the following best explains why employers frequently use Internet recruiting methods to find outside candidates for jobs

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Answer: cost effectiveness

Q40: Which of the following best explains why firms are using temporary workers more frequently

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Answer: need of businesses to increase productivity

Q41: Which of the following best expresses the addition rule of probabilities

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Answer: P(A***B) = P(A) + P(B) – P(A B)

Q42: Which of the following best summarises the distinction between ‘hard’ and ‘soft’ HRP

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Answer: ‘Hard’ HRP emphasises direct control over employees, whereas ‘soft’ HRP emphasises indirect control

Q43: Which of the following bond buyers did not buy the bond that best met his or her objective

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Answer: Cecilia held long-term bonds rather than short-term bonds to avoid risk

Q44: Which of the following bonds has the highest interest rate

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Answer: a long term and a high credit risk

Q45: Which of the following both make the interest rate on a bond higher than otherwise

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Answer: the interest it pays is taxed and it was issued by a financially weak corporation

Q46: Which of the following can a union do once it is ‘recognized’

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Answer: Engage in collective bargaining with an employer

Q47: Which of the following can be considered a planning activity when writing a report

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Answer: Rearranging content

Q48: Which of the following can be considered as HRD functions

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Answer: All of these—a. Identify and imparting training needs b. Identifying and selecting the best candidates c. Methods, rates the appraise on various parameters on point scale

Q49: Which of the following can be identified as a best statement that represents a firms big picture statements, describing a desired end state, general in scope and not restrictive

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Answer: Vision statement

Q50: Which of the following can be modeled as variants of the standard transportation problem

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Answer: All can be modeled as a variation of the transportation problem.—s/b—All of these—A) The sum of the supplies exceeds the sum of demands. B) A destination has a minimum and maximum demand

Q51: Which of the following can be viewed as an effect size indicator

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Answer: r-squaredb. rc. Eta-squaredd. Omega-squared—all of these

Q52: Which of the following can best be described as a categorical variable

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Answer: religion

Q53: Which of the following can increase real GDP per person

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Answer: All these— a decrease in population growth foreign investment from abroadpolicies to encourage international trade

Q54: Which of the following cannot be a purpose or rationale for a mixed research design

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Answer: Triangulationb. Complementarityc. Developmentd. Initiatione. Expansion—all of these can be purposes

Q55: Which of the following cannot be considered as the objectives of performance appraisal

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Answer: To take decisions related to overall objectives of the organization

Q56: Which of the following capital items is not considered an accessory part of equipment? The billing department needs to know so they can be classified correctly

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Answer: buildings

Q57: Which of the following categories of messages should not be written in the direct approach

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Answer: Refusing a claim for adjustment

Q58: Which of the following characterizes training today

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Answer: training is increasingly more strategic

Q59: Which of the following choices indicates that a project has a burn rate of 1.2? Hint: Burn rate is the same as the Cost Performance Index

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Answer: The ACWP is 100 and the BCWP is 120. (CPI=BCWP/ACWP=1.2, This means, for every dollar spent, the project is achiving USD1.2 of values)

Q60: Which of the following communication and promotion tools involve direct connections with customers aimed toward building customer-unique value and lasting relationships

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Answer: A and B.—a. Personal selling. b. Direct marketing

Q61: Which of the following component of attitude represents a person’s opinio’ns knowledge, and information

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Answer: Cognitive component

Q62: Which of the following concepts refers to the process of identifying prospective buyers, understanding them intimately and developing favorable long-term perceptions of the organization and its offerings

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Answer: Customer relationship management

Q63: Which of the following consolidates information regarding required tasks and skills in a format that is helpful for determining training requirements

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Answer: task analysis record form

Q64: Which of the following constitute functions of M aster Production Schedule?
I. Translate aggregate plans.
II. Evaluate alternative schedules.
III. identify material requirements.
IV. Generate capacity requirements

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Answer: All 1, 2, 3 and 4 above

Q65: Which of the following constitutes the development of new products?
I. idea generation.
II. Economic evaluation.
III. Market testing

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Answer: All 1, 2 and 3 above

Q66: Which of the following contains data regarding employees’ education, career development, and special skills and is used by managers when selecting inside candidates for promotion

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Answer: qualifications inventories

Q67: Which of the following contract types places the greatest risk on the seller

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Answer: Firm-fixed-price contract

Q68: Which of the following control techniques available to the researcher controls for both known and unknown variables

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Answer: Random assignment

Q69: Which of the following Cost Management processes are concerned with cost baseline

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Answer: Cost budgetingC. Cost control—B and C

Q70: Which of the following could be an appropriate WBS code for a work package at the fourth level in a WBS where the top level code is 1.0

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Answer: 1.1.1.1C. 1.2.3.4—b and c

Q71: Which of the following could be true of perfect competition but not of monopoly

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Answer: There are no barriers to entry

Q72: Which of the following could be used for randomly assigning participants to groups in an experimental study

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Answer: Use a list of random numbers or a computer randomization program

Q73: Which of the following could be used to create a personal area network

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Answer: Bluetooth

Q74: Which of the following could explain a decrease in the equilibrium interest rate and an increase in the equilibrium quantity of loanable funds

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Answer: The supply of loanable funds shifted rightward

Q75: Which of the following could explain a decrease in the equilibrium interest rate and in the equilibrium quantity of loanable funds

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Answer: The demand for loanable funds shifted leftward

Q76: Which of the following could explain a decrease in the interest rate and an increase in the equilibrium quantity of investment

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Answer: the supply of loanable funds shifted right

Q77: Which of the following could explain an increase in the equilibrium interest rate and a decrease in the equilibrium quantity of loanable funds

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Answer: The supply of loanable funds shifted left

Q78: Which of the following could explain an increase in the interest rate and the equilibrium quantity of loanable funds

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Answer: The demand for loanable funds shifted rightward

Q79: Which of the following could trigger a mid-stage assessment in a PRINCE project

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Answer: The first, second and third answers

Q80: Which of the following countries are best described as adopting a broadly voluntarist stance to training and development

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Answer: UK

Q81: Which of the following counts as part of the supply of loanable funds

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Answer: bank deposits and purchases of bonds

Q82: Which of the following customers require special attention

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Answer: None of the above

Q83: Which of the following deals with focusing customers at the end of the tunnel and not for company convenience or economy

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Answer: End-To-End Process

Q84: Which of the following decision is least likely to be supported by a management information system

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Answer: Company reorganisation

Q85: Which of the following define the application architecture for an information system

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Answer: All of these —A). the implementation technology for all software to be developed in-houseB). the technology to be used to implement the user interfaceC). the distribution of stored data across a networkD). the degree to which the information system will be centralized or distributed

Q86: Which of the following definitions apply to the cost of quality

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Answer: Total cost of all project efforts

Q87: Which of the following definitions is not true

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Answer: The median is the sum of all the items in the group divided by the number of items in the group

Q88: Which of the following demonstrates the multiplication rule

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Answer: P(A B) = P(AB)P(B)

Q89: Which of the following department is responsible for handling safety and health issues of employees

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Answer: HR department

Q90: Which of the following department of an Orqanisation performs the managerial function of matching Orqanisational needs with the skills and abilities of the employees

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Answer: Human Resource department

Q91: Which of the following designs does an excellent job of controlling for rival hypotheses that threaten the internal validity of an experiment

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Answer: Posttest-only control-group designc. Pretest-posttest control-group design—Both b and c are excellent designs

Q92: Which of the following designs permits a comparison of pretest scores to determine the initial equivalence of groups on the pretest before the treatment variable is introduced into the research setting

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Answer: Pretest-posttest control group design

Q93: Which of the following determines future staff needs by using ratios between a causal factor and the number of employees required

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Answer: ratio analysis

Q94: Which of the following diagram supports only one relationship

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Answer: activity on arrow

Q95: Which of the following direct marketing forms has the following characteristics: well suited to one-to-one communication, high target-market selectivity, can be personalized, is flexible, and allows easy measurement of results

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Answer: direct-mail marketing

Q96: Which of the following distinguishes the notion of the psychological contract from other related concepts

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Answer: The idea that organization and individual employee make promises about what they will give each other

Q97: Which of the following documentation styles should not be used in a formal report

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Answer: A simple, consistent style adapted by the author of the report

Q98: Which of the following does not apply to qualitative research

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Answer: Ends with a statistical report

Q99: Which of the following does not constitute the role of a project manager

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Answer: Business case approval

Q100: Which of the following does not describe a rule of correctness for drawing a physical DFD

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Answer: a system that is not cost effective
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