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Q1: Vestibule training’s attractiveness is because of its lower costs or increased safety

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Answer: Correct – True

Q2: Video resumes eliminate the possibility of applicants claiming discrimination in a firm’s hiring practices

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q3: Virtue Ethics —

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Answer: Assumes good persons will make good decisions and personal qualities affect decisions

Q4: Visual aids distract an audience and should rarely be used

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Answer: False – Answer

Q5: Volume of operational information is

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Answer: Detailed

Q6: Volume of production includes___

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Answer: All of these—a. Job production b. Batch production c. Mass production

Q7: Volume of strategic information is

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Answer: Condensed

Q8: Volume of tactical information is

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Answer: Summarized

Q9: Volume, as reported in stock tables, refers to the

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Answer: number of shares traded

Q10: Voluntary reports are prepared at the request of someone else

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Answer: False – Answer

Q11: Volunteering

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Answer: is a form of corporate philanthropy

Q12: Wages in the United States are higher than those in India primarily because

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Answer: The human and physical capital of American workers exceeds (hat of their Indian counterparts

Q13: Wal-Mart has become the world’s largest retailer by delivering on its promise, “Always low prices-always.” This would be an example of the marketing philosophy that says

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Answer: Take care of your customers, and market share and profits will follow.

Q14: We associate the term debt finance with

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Answer: the bond market, and we associate the term equity finance with the stock market

Q15: We cannot ship your order until you send us full specifications represents

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Answer: Tactful tone

Q16: We define a service as anything that can be offered to a market for attention, acquisition, use, or consumption and that might satisfy a want or need

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q17: We define a___as anything that can be offered to a market for attention, acquisition, use, or consumption and that might satisfy a want or need

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Answer: product

Q18: We identified several internal benefits of objectives, goals and a sense of mission. Which is not included

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Answer: Basis to resolve disputes

Q19: We interpret the meaning of “loanable funds” as the

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Answer: flow of resources available to fund private investment

Q20: We interpret the term loanable funds to mean the flow of resources available to fund private investment

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Answer: Correct – True

Q21: We would expect the interest rate on Bond A to be higher than the interest rate on Bond B if the two bonds have identical characteristics except that

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Answer: Bond A has a term of 20 years and Bond B has a term of 2 years

Q22: We would expect the interest rate on Bond A to be lower than the interest rate on Bond B if the two bonds have identical characteristics except that

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Answer: the credit risk associated with Bond A is lower than the credit risk associated with Bond B

Q23: Weakness are___

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Answer: All of these—a. Defective marketing b. High capital cost c. No patent right d. Ineffective inventory control system

Q24: Weaknesses include___

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Answer: All of these—a. Lack of external relationships b. Low skilled personnel c. Inadequate use of production capacity d. No patent right

Q25: Web-based catalogs present challenges. What is one of those challenges

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Answer: They are passive and must be marketed

Q26: Wells Fargo and Company is a financial services firm that provides banking, insurance, and mortgage services at 10,000 stores nationwide. Wells Fargo offers its employees many professional development opportunities such as training programs and tuition reimbursement. Wells Fargo executives are considering the expansion of the firm’s existing training programs after employees have expressed strong interest in the idea. Which of the following, if true, best supports the argument that Wells Fargo should integrate computer simulations into its training program for bank tellers

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Answer: Employee surveys indicate that many Wells Fargo bank tellers are uncertain about the best methods for handling angry customers

Q27: Wells Fargo and Company is a financial services firm that provides banking, insurance, and mortgage services at 10,000 stores nationwide. Wells Fargo offers its employees many professional development opportunities such as training programs and tuition reimbursement. Wells Fargo executives are considering the expansion of the firm’s existing training programs after employees have expressed strong interest in the idea. Which of the following, if true, best supports the argument that Wells Fargo should use intelligent tutoring systems to provide training for loan officers

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Answer: Current Wells Fargo employees indicate that they prefer to work at their own pace and have a variety of learning styles

Q28: What are “Global Literacies”

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Answer: The ability to succeed in a cross cultural environment

Q29: What are core competences

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Answer: Activities that underpin competitive advantage and are difficult for competitors to imitate or obtain

Q30: What are dummy activities

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Answer: Arrows in ADM which represent dependencies between nodes without real activities

Q31: What are ethical theories

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Answer: Ethical theories are the rules and principles that determine right and wrong for any given situation

Q32: What are faits accomplis

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Answer: Decisions made earlier which limit the options for decision making

Q33: What are Metadata

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Answer: Information that describes and defines the organization’s data

Q34: What are SMART objectives

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Answer: Objectives that have specific, measurable, assignable, realistic and time-related specifications

Q35: What are some factors that may be considered when qualifying prospects at Reliable Tool Company

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Answer: The prospects’ ability to pay, the prospects’ annual amount purchased, and the prospects’ images in the marketplace may all play a role

Q36: What are the 4 stages of team development

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Answer: Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing

Q37: What are the external environmental factors affecting recruitment

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Answer: HR strategy

Q38: What are the four parts of the communications model

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Answer: Sender, Message, Medium, Receiver

Q39: What are the four stages of Simon’s model of decision making

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Answer: Intelligence, design, choice, implementation

Q40: What are the ideas underpinning ‘soft, commitment’ or high.- road HRM practices

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Answer: Labour needs to be treated as assets to be invested in

Q41: What are the inputs to project Plan Execution

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Answer: Project plan, supporting detail, organizational policies, preventive action and corrective action

Q42: What are the main components of a systematic formal selection process

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Answer: application, testing, behavioural interview, reference check, and hiring decision

Q43: What are the three criteria for the robustness of strategic capability

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Answer: Complexity, causal ambiguity and culture/history

Q44: What are the two dimensions to performance for products

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Answer: instrumental and symbolic

Q45: What are three roles given to people who do the selling

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Answer: Salespeople are order takers, order getters, creative sellers, and relationship builders

Q46: What are workarounds in project management

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Answer: Workarounds are unplanned responses to emerging risks that were previously unidentified or accepted

Q47: What are you likely to see as a project progresses in a schedule with must fix dates and little or no slack

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Answer: Negative float

Q48: What arte the laws that gave government enormous control over the management

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Answer: Companies ActB. Industrial Act—both (a. and (b)

Q49: What can we find by using the following formula? Total Fixed Costs Contribution per unit

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Answer: Break-Even Output

Q50: What did Strauss and colleagues (1997) find in their two-year longitudinal study of the effects of spanking children

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Answer: A nearly linear relationship between the rate of spanking and a child’s level of antisocial behavior

Q51: What do cash cows symbolize in BCG matrix

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Answer: Stable

Q52: What do many companies use to set sales force size

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Answer: The workload approach

Q53: What do nodes on a social network analysis represent

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Answer: People

Q54: What do we call financial institutions through which savers can indirectly provide funds to borrowers

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Answer: financial intermediaries

Q55: what do you mean by CRR

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Answer: Cash reserve ratio

Q56: What document contains the following: type of contract to be used, vendor management protocols, procurement coordination

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Answer: Procurement management plan

Q57: What does CASH COW symbolize in BGC matrix

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Answer: Stable

Q58: What does dog symbolize in BCG matrix

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Answer: Decline

Q59: What does DOG symbolize in BGC matrix

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Answer: Decline D

Q60: What does green symbolize in BCG matrix

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Answer: Invest and expand

Q61: What does having a project charter do for the project managers

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Answer: Gives the project manager authority

Q62: What does it mean when you calculate a 95percent confidence interval

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Answer: The process you used will capture the true parameter 95percent of the time in the long runb. You can be “95percent confident” that your interval will include the population parameterc. You can be “5percent confident” that your interval will not include the population parameter—all of these statements are true

Q63: What does question mark (?) symbolize in BCG matrix

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Answer: Remain diversified

Q64: What does QUESTION MARK symbolize in BGC matrix

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Answer: Remain Diversified

Q65: What does red symbolize in BCG matrix

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Answer: Harvest and divest

Q66: What does STAR symbolize in BGC matrix

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Answer: Growth

Q67: What does stars symbolize in BCG matrix

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Answer: Growth

Q68: What does the accounting term BCR 1.5 mean

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Answer: The payback is 1.5 times the cost

Q69: What does the acronym RAM commonly stand for in project management

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Answer: Responsibility Assignment Matrix

Q70: What does the annual call plan indicate

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Answer: The annual call plan shows which customers and prospects to call on in which months and which activities to carry out

Q71: What does the maturity of a bond indicate

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Answer: The date at which the bond is paid off

Q72: What does the transfer of direct materials to the production area cause

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Answer: An increase to work in process

Q73: What does time-and-duty analysis reveal

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Answer: This tool indicates time spent selling, traveling, waiting, eating, taking breaks, and doing administrative chores

Q74: What does yellow symbolize in BCG matrix

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Answer: Select and earn

Q75: What effect is working when the price of pizza falls and consumers tend to buy it instead of other goods

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Answer: the substitution effect

Q76: What form of data collection involves recording work activities in a log

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Answer: diaries

Q77: What general type of research is focused on collecting information to help a researcher advance an ideological or political position

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Answer: Orientational research

Q78: What government regulation is intended to promote the use of EHRs in physician practices and hospitals through the use of financial incentives

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Answer: the HITECH Act

Q79: What happens to desired investment spending if the interest rate rises? Is this response relevant to the supply of loanable funds curve or the demand for loanable funds curve

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Answer: Investment spending falls. This relationship is relevant to the demand for loanable funds

Q80: What is a “Should Cost” estimate

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Answer: An estimate prepared to check prices submitted by a seller

Q81: What is a bond buyer promised when she buys a bond

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Answer: Future payments

Q82: What is a firm’s organizational climate

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Answer: Organizational climate describes the feeling that salespeople have about their opportunities, value, and rewards for a good performance

Q83: What is a major tool companies use to market themselves to various publics – such as General Electric states, “We bring good things to life”

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Answer: corporate image advertising

Q84: What is a mutual fund

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Answer: An institution that sells shares to the public and uses the proceeds to buy a portfolio of stocks and bonds

Q85: What is a quality audit

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Answer: A structured review of quality management activities

Q86: What is a trigger in project risk management

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Answer: A warning sign that an identified risk event might have occurred

Q87: What is active risk acceptance

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Answer: Creating contingency reserves in money and time

Q88: What is another term that refers to a confounding extraneous variable

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Answer: Third variable

Q89: What is business ethics

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Answer: The study of business situations, activities, and decisions where issues of right and wrong are addressed

Q90: what is Buyer’s risk objective in Project Procurement Management

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Answer: to place maximum performance risk on their seller while maintaining incentive for economic performance

Q91: What is considered polite in one culture can be considered rude in another

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Answer: True – Answer

Q92: What is CRR

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Answer: Cash Reserve Ratio

Q93: What is incorrect, or the least true statement about a benefit /cost analysis

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Answer: It should only be performed again after a project is started using the original data

Q94: What is it called when the participants are not revealed to any one but researcher and staff

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Answer: Confidentiality

Q95: What is meant by ‘Impression effect’

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Answer: The notion that some employees can manage their reputation to ensure managers has a good impression of them

Q96: What is meant by ‘internal’ and ‘external’ fit

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Answer: HR policies which are complementary and consistent within the organization and with the overall business strategy

Q97: What is meant by 360 degree appraisal

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Answer: A system where feedback is obtained from peers subordinates and supervisors

Q98: What is meant by an SME

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Answer: Small Medium Enterprise

Q99: What is meant by the ‘Veblen effect’

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Answer: The practice of giving everyone average ratings

Q100: What is meant by the acronym NVQ

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Answer: National Vocational Qualification