Q1: The process of developing a vision and mission statement includes which of these as the first activity
Answer: Have a brainstorming session on whether the organization should have a mission statement. DAnswer
Q2: The process of developing a written scope statement as the basis for future project decisions is called
Answer: Scope planningAnswer
Q3: The process of developing an applicants’ pool for job openings in an Organisation is called
Answer: RecruitmentAnswer
Q4: The process of developing and maintaining a strategic fit between the organization’s goals and capabilities and its changing marketing opportunities is called
Answer: Strategic planningAnswer
Q5: The process of developing the applicant’s pool for job openings in an organization is called___
Answer: SelectionAnswer
Q6: The process of dividing the world market into distinct subsets of customers
Answer: market segmentationAnswer
Q7: The process of drawing a sample from a population is known as___
Answer: SamplingAnswer
Q8: The process of evaluating an employee’s current and/or past performance relative to his or her performance standards is called___
Answer: performance appraisalAnswer
Q9: The process of evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis to provide confidence that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards is called
Answer: Quality AssuranceAnswer
Q10: The process of examining a training program is called___
Answer: training evaluationAnswer
Q11: The process of identifying and defining a product or service is called
Answer: Procurement planningAnswer
Q12: The process of identifying which products or services can be procured outside the project organization is done as part of
Answer: Procurement PlanningAnswer
Q13: The process of identifying which project needs can be best met by procuring products or services outside the project organization is called _ _
Answer: Procurement PlanningAnswer
Q14: The process of marking segments of data with symbols, descriptive words, or category names is known as___
Answer: CodingAnswer
Q15: The process of monitoring specific project results to determine if they comply with relevant quality standards is called
Answer: Quality ControlAnswer
Q16: The process of obtaining quotations, bids, offers or proposals as appropriate is called
Answer: SolicitationAnswer
Q17: The process of performing activities that increase the value of goods or services to consumers is known as
Answer: Value creationAnswer
Q18: The process of performing activities that increase the value of goods or services to consumers is known as: Select correct option
Answer: Value chainAnswer
Q19: The process of quantifying data is referred to as___
Answer: EnumerationAnswer
Q20: The process of requirements discovery consists of the following activities, except
Answer: sampling of existing documentation, forms and filesAnswer
Q21: The process of strategy management starts with___
Answer: Determination of missionAnswer
Q22: The process of verifying that there is a performance deficiency and determining if such deficiencies should be corrected through training or through some other means is called___
Answer: performance analysisAnswer
Q23: The process of verifying that there is a performance deficiency and determining if such deficiency should be corrected through training or through some other means is called___
Answer: performance analysisAnswer
Q24: The process of___feedback seeks views from a range of relevant viewpoints – peers, superiors and subordinates, and sometimes even outsiders like customers and suppliers – based on a framework of competencies
Answer: 360 degreeAnswer
Q25: The process that is not a part of time management is
Answer: Resource PlanningAnswer
Q26: The process which best defines the locating and, encouraging potential employees to apply for jobs is
Answer: RecruitmentAnswer
Q27: The processes that drive behavior in Bandura’s model are called
Answer: reciprocal determinismAnswer
Q28: The producer must determine the rights and responsibilities of participating channel members
Answer: Correct – TrueAnswer
Q29: The Production Order Quantity model
Answer: is appropriate when units are sold/used as they are producedAnswer
Q30: The products which need less specialised information are
Answer: high touch productsAnswer
Q31: The profile model plots a graph on a
Answer: risk-return pair of axesAnswer
Q32: The program evaluation and review technique (PERT) method of scheduling differs from the critical path method (CPM) because the PERT method
Answer: Uses weighted averages of activity durations to calculate project durationAnswer
Q33: The project charter should be issued by
Answer: Manager external to projectAnswer
Q34: The project is formally initiated or authorized to continue when
Answer: B and CAnswer
Q35: The Project Life Cycle
Answer: Defines what work should be done in each phaseAnswer
Q36: The project life cycle typically passes sequentially through
Answer: Four StagesAnswer
Q37: The project management activity involving estimation includes
Answer: analysis of the work breakdownAnswer
Q38: The Project Management Body of Knowledge Guide definition of a project indicates that a project is
Answer: temporaryAnswer
Q39: The project manager is responsible for initiating, planning, executing, and closing down the project
Answer: Correct – TrueAnswer
Q40: The project manager should be assigned during what phase
Answer: InitiationAnswer
Q41: The project manager should be assigned___as an output from the Initiation process
Answer: As early in the project as is feasibleAnswer
Q42: The project manager typically share problems with you and the team and prepares evaluating solution as a group. Which type of leadership style is your project manager using
Answer: ConsensuasAnswer
Q43: The project manager’s leadership style should be matched to the corresponding developmental level of the project team and should move through successive steps in the following order
Answer: Directing, coaching, supporting, delegatingAnswer
Q44: The project manager, when communicating with an action-oriented person should-
Answer: Be as brief as possibleAnswer
Q45: The project maturity model developed by the Center for Business Practices would have___rings if a spider web diagram were used
Answer: fiveAnswer
Q46: The project Network Diagram is an input to what process
Answer: Schedule DevelopmentAnswer
Q47: The project plan is used to do all of the following except
Answer: Identify risks that arise during project executionAnswer
Q48: The project schedule is not used to determine
Answer: The project’s budgetAnswer
Q49: The project team has added some additional functionality which was not required as part of the project. However the customer is satisfied with the project. From a quality perspective
Answer: This is not acceptable quality because gold plating was done which is not advisableAnswer
Q50: The project team is working on an important and complex project that requires a lot of coordination. Under these circumstances, the BEST strategy is to
Answer: have a war roomAnswer
Q51: The prospecting step in the selling process includes identifying and___the prospects. Without both of them much time and effort will be wasted
Answer: qualifyingAnswer
Q52: The psychological factor of entrepreneurship includes___
Answer: All of these—a. Innovation Answer
b. Function of high achievement
c. Organization building
d. Desire to influence others
Q53: The purchase of a new house is the one form of
Answer: household spending that is investment rather than consumptionAnswer
Q54: The pure tangible goods and pure services are two extremes of
Answer: market offeringAnswer
Q55: The purpose of a business is to
Answer: create and maintain profitable customersAnswer
Q56: The purpose of a mission statement is to declare all of these except
Answer: an annual financial planAnswer
Q57: The purpose of a SWOT analysis is to analyze
Answer: The business environment and the strategic capability of an organization relative to its competitorsAnswer
Q58: The purpose of any Human resource information system is to
Answer: Assist management in decision makingAnswer
Q59: The purpose of backdating stock options is to give the stock-option holder
Answer: sure profit on the optionsAnswer
Q60: The purpose of operational feasibility is to understand the degree to which a proposed system will likely solve the business problems or take advantage of opportunities
Answer: Correct – TrueAnswer
Q61: The purpose of the preliminary screening stage is to eliminate unqualified applicants
Answer: True – AnswerAnswer
Q62: The purpose of this type of advertising is to create repeat purchases
Answer: ReminderAnswer
Q63: The push for higher levels of quality does not appear to be customer driven
Answer: Wrong – FalseAnswer
Q64: The qualities buyers’ dislike most in salespeople includes all of the following except___
Answer: being too early for an appointmentAnswer
Q65: The qualities that buyers like most in salespeople include empathy, honesty, dependability, thoroughness, follow-through, and___
Answer: being a good listenerAnswer
Q66: The quality of information which does not hide any unpleasant information is known as
Answer: TrustworthyAnswer
Q67: The quality of information which is based on understanding user needs
Answer: RelevantAnswer
Q68: The quality team for the project consists of several groups. Which of the following project participant plays the most important role in the quality function
Answer: CustomerAnswer
Q69: The quality team for the project consists of several groups. Which of the following project participants plays the most important role in the quality function
Answer: CustomerAnswer
Q70: The question regarding the various channel functions is not whether or not they need to be performed but who is to perform them. All channel functions have three things in common. Which of the following is NOT one of these channel functions
Answer: They require substantial investments by the producerAnswer
Q71: The quotas which combine the features of tariffs and quotas are
Answer: tariff quotasAnswer
Q72: The ratio of debt to GDP in the United States
Answer: all of these are correct.—a. tends to rise during wars.Answer
b. rose during the decade that began in 2001.
c. fell during the late 1990s
Q73: The ratio of debt to GDP in the United States has always been less than one
Answer: Wrong – FalseAnswer
Q74: The ratio of government debt to GDP was higher during the Reagan presidency than at any previous time in U.S. history
Answer: Wrong – FalseAnswer
Q75: The real interest rate is the
Answer: interest rate corrected for inflationAnswer
Q76: The reason for having the manager participate as a job analyst is to___
Answer: verify statements are inclusive and accurateAnswer
Q77: The reason why organizations are switching from traditional to e-business transaction is___
Answer: Decreasing costs of transactionsAnswer
Q78: The reasonable man is
Answer: The man on the Mumbai trainAnswer
Q79: The receipt issued by the commanding officer of the ship is
Answer: mate’s receiptAnswer
Q80: The receiver filters messages based on all but the following
Answer: Distance (Assumes that the media used for distance communication is acceptable (fax or phone is operational)Answer
Q81: The recent wave of corporate mergers and acquisitions has decided, “We need a master brand to leave all our old names behind.” What is this called
Answer: rebrandingAnswer
Q82: The reciprocal of the payback period is used to calculate the average rate of return for a project
Answer: Correct – TrueAnswer
Q83: The registration of trade mark in divided into
Answer: two partsAnswer
Q84: The registration of trade mark in help the for
Answer: prevention of the use of fraudulent merchandiseAnswer
Q85: The registration of trade mark may be
Answer: renewalAnswer
Q86: The registration trade mark .is divided in two parts namely
Answer: partA and part BAnswer
Q87: The regression line is
Answer: the best fitting straight line through the points in the scattergram which minimises the squared deviations from the pointsAnswer
Q88: The relationship between the buyer of a brand and the user of a brand is that
Answer: Buyer may not make the brand decision but user doesAnswer
Q89: The relationship is built with a customer over a long period of time is called
Answer: Customer life time valueAnswer
Q90: The research participants are described in detail in which section of the research plan
Answer: MethodAnswer
Q91: The research proposal may include information about all of the following except
Answer: what the possible solutions areAnswer
Q92: The research which seeks to discover new relationships in marketing arena is
Answer: exploratory researchAnswer
Q93: The researcher has secretly placed him or herself (as a member) in the group that is being studied. This researcher may be which of the following
Answer: A complete participantAnswer
Q94: The respective territorial limit of modern offices are
Answer: the state of KeralaAnswer
Q95: The respective territorial limits of Delhi offices are
Answer: the state of RajasthanAnswer
Q96: The respects territorial limits of Calcutta offices are
Answer: the state of ChennaiAnswer
Q97: The respects territorial limits of Mumbai offices are
Answer: the state of Madhya PradeshAnswer
Q98: The response of consumers to a particular display watched in an actual store is
Answer: observational researchAnswer
Q99: The response rate to a survey affects
Answer: how representative the sample isAnswer
Q100: The results of communication planning will be reviewed and revised as needed
Answer: C through out the projectAnswer
