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Q1: Strategy deals___

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Answer: With choice and direction of an organization

Q2: Strategy formulation includes which of the following activities

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Answer: Both a and c are correct—s/b—Both—A) Determining alternatives C) Evaluating alternatives

Q3: Strategy intent includes___

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Answer: All of these—a. Vision b. Mission c. Objectives

Q4: Strategy is designed or formulated on the basis of___

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Answer: Goals

Q5: Strategy is related with___

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Answer: Choice and direction of an organization

Q6: Stratification is a systematic sampling technique that attempts to reduce the variance of the estimates by spreading out the sampling or by avoiding very high or low estimates

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Answer: True – Answer

Q7: Strength and weakness analysis includes___

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Answer: All of these—a. Identifying strength and weakness b. Strategic cost analysis c. Distinctive competencies d. Strategic cost analysis

Q8: Strength cover___

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Answer: All of these—a. Highly skilled personnel b. Advantages of tax concessions c. Effective sales force

Q9: Strength includes___

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Answer: All of these—a. Low cost of production b. Better product quality c. Product innovation skills

Q10: Structured analysis, a process-driven analysis approach, focuses on the flow of data through software processes

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Answer: False – Answer

Q11: Structured decisions are also called___decisions

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Answer: Programmable

Q12: Structured design seeks to factor a program into the top-down hierarchy of modules that have the following properties

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Answer: None of these —A). highly cohesive and highly coupledB). loosely structured and loosely cohesiveC). loosely cohesive and highly coupledD). loosely cohesive and loosely coupled

Q13: Structured interviews tend to involve asking open-ended questions

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Answer: False – Answer

Q14: Studies of IT projects reveal that

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Answer: up to 75percent of software projects are cancelled

Q15: Studies show that good salespeople possess all of these traits except which one

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Answer: At least average listener

Q16: Studies show that trainees are distracted by visual aids presented during training sessions

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q17: Style is a larger concept than design. Design describes the appearance of a product

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q18: Successful career planning development requires action from

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Answer: The organization, the employees immediate manager and the employees himself

Q19: Successful firms use project portfolio planning routinely to

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Answer: develop products with long lead times and plan ahead

Q20: Successful managers are

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Answer: Efficient and effective

Q21: Successful project management does NOT include which of the following factors

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Answer: Interchangeable staff

Q22: Successful project management firms rely on home runs and narrowly concentrated efforts since specialization creates name recognition and market share

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q23: Successful service companies focus their attention on both their customers and their employees. They understand___, which links service firm profits with employee and customer satisfaction

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Answer: Service-profit chains

Q24: Succession planning is a type of management development program that focuses on planning and filling middle-management positions

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q25: Succession planning is not a process whereby an organization ensures that employees are recruited and developed to fill each key role within the company

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q26: Supplier risk is highest with___

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Answer: Firm fixed price contract

Q27: Supplier’s request for price increase should be analyzed patiently by the buyer. A curt ‘no’ or ‘negative’ reply spoils relationships

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Answer: Correct – True

Q28: Suppliers for any organisation are

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Answer: c. primary stakeholders

Q29: Supply chain management is essentially the optimisation of material flows and associated information flows involved with an organisation’s operations. To manage these flows, e-business applications are essential to bring such benefits as noted in ‘Internet retailing’ in 2010 which reported that the average rates of return to a high street retailer could be as high as 10percent. What did the same source report as the average rate of return for UK e-commerce sites

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Answer: 22percent

Q30: Supporting customers through the process of selecting, purchasing, and maintaining a product or service is known as

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Answer: Customer services

Q31: Suppose a closed economy had public saving of -USD1 trillion and private saving of USD3 trillion. What are national saving and investment for this country

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Answer: USD2 trillion, USD2 trillion

Q32: Suppose a country had a smaller increase in debt in 2011 than it had in 2010. Then other things the same, we would expect

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Answer: lower interest rates and greater investment in 2011 than in 2010

Q33: Suppose a country has a consumption tax that is similar to a state sales tax. If its government were to eliminate the consumption tax and replace it with an income tax that includes an income tax on interest from savings, what would happen

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Answer: The interest rate would increase and saving would decrease

Q34: Suppose a country has a larger increase in debt in 2014 than it had in 2013. Then other things the same

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Answer: the supply of loanable funds shifts leftward and the interest rate rises

Q35: Suppose a country has only a sales tax. Now suppose it replaces the sales tax with an income tax that includes a tax on interest income. This would make equilibrium

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Answer: interest rates rise and the equilibrium quantity of loanable funds fall

Q36: Suppose a government that taxed all interest income changed its tax law so that the first USD5,000 of a taxpayer’s interest income was tax free. This would shift the

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Answer: supply of loanable funds to the right, causing interest rates to fall

Q37: Suppose a monopolist cannot price discriminate. To maximize profit, it will

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Answer: Never produce in the inelastic range of its demand curve

Q38: Suppose a small closed economy has GDP of USD5 billion, consumption of USD3 billion, and government expenditures of USD1 billion. Then investment and national saving are both USD1 billion

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Answer: Correct – True

Q39: Suppose Congress institutes an investment tax credit. What would happen in the market for loanable funds

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Answer: The interest rate and investment would rise

Q40: Suppose government expenditures on goods and services and net taxes both decrease, and expenditures fall by more than net taxes. The effects of these changes on the budget deficit cause

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Answer: the equilibrium interest rate to fall and the equilibrium quantity of loanable funds to rise

Q41: Suppose government expenditures on goods and services increase, transfers are unchanged, and taxes rise by less than the increase in expenditures. These changes in the government’s budget cause

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Answer: the equilibrium interest rate to rise and the equilibrium quantity of loanable funds to fall

Q42: Suppose in some country that the first USD5,000 of interest income is exempt from income tax. If the government then removed this exemption

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Answer: the interest rate would rise and investment would fall

Q43: Suppose private saving in a closed economy is USD12b and investment is USD10b

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Answer: The government budget deficit must equal USD2b

Q44: Suppose Sarah Lee Corporation stock has a P/E ratio of 8. This P/E ratio is relatively

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Answer: low, indicating that buyers may expect earnings to fall

Q45: Suppose that a 5 percent sales tax is levied on all goods and services. Is it possible that the burden of the tax be shared equally by all buyers and all sellers of every good and services

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Answer: yes

Q46: Suppose that a 5 percent sales tax is levied on all goods and services. Will this cause total spending on every good and service to increase

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Answer: only the demand is inelastic (i.e. elasticity is less than 1 but larger than zero)

Q47: Suppose that a monopolist must choose between two points on its demand curve: it can sell 100 units for USD3 each, or it can sell 140 units for USD2 each. Which of the following is true

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Answer: The monopolist is facing inelastic demand

Q48: Suppose that Congress were to institute an investment tax credit. What would happen in the market for loanable funds

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Answer: The demand for loanable funds would shift right

Q49: Suppose that Congress were to repeal an investment tax credit. What would happen in the market for loanable funds

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Answer: The demand for loanable funds would shift left

Q50: Suppose that in a closed economy GDP is 11,000, consumption is 7,500, and taxes are 500. What value of government purchases would make national savings equal to 2,000 and at that value would the government have a deficit or surplus

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Answer: 1,500, deficit

Q51: Suppose that in a closed economy GDP is equal to 11,000, taxes are equal to 1,000, consumption equals 7,500, and government purchases equal 2,000. What is national saving

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Answer: None of the above is correct.—a. -500b. 500c. 2,000

Q52: Suppose that in a closed economy GDP is equal to 15,000, government purchases are equal to 3,000, consumption equals 10,500, and taxes equal 3,500. What are private saving and public saving

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Answer: 1,000 and 500, respectively

Q53: Suppose that in a closed economy GDP is equal to 20,000, consumption equal to 15,000, government purchases equal 4,000 and taxes equal 3,000. What are private saving, public saving, and national saving

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Answer: 2,000, -1,000, and 1,000, respectively

Q54: Suppose that the tires of a certain tire manufacturer are discovered to be defective. Other things the same, this news would cause

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Answer: the demand for this company’s stock to decrease, so the price would fall

Q55: Suppose the city of Des Moines has a high credit rating, and so when Des Moines borrows funds by selling bonds

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Answer: the city’s high credit rating and the tax status of municipal bonds both contribute to a lower interest rate than would otherwise apply

Q56: Suppose the Congress and president decreased the maximum annual contributions limits to retirement accounts and at the same time reduced the budget deficit. What would happen to the interest rate

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Answer: It might do any of the above

Q57: Suppose the economy is closed and consumption is 8 million, taxes are 2 million, and government purchases are 1.75 million. If national saving amounts to 1.25 million, then what is GDP

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Answer: 11 million

Q58: Suppose the economy is closed with national saving of USD3 trillion, consumption of USD10 trillion, and government purchases of USD4 trillion. What is GDP

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Answer: USD17 trillion

Q59: Suppose the government changed the tax laws, with the result that people were encouraged to consume more and save less. Using the loanable funds model, a consequence would be

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Answer: higher interest rates and lower investment

Q60: Suppose the government deficit increases, but the interest rate remains the same. Which of the following things might have happened simultaneously to keep interest rates the same

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Answer: Consumers decide to decrease consumption and work more

Q61: Suppose the government finds a major defect in one of a company’s products and demands that the product be taken off the market. We would expect that the

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Answer: demand for existing shares of the stock and the price will both fall

Q62: Suppose the government ran a budget surplus in 2010 and a larger surplus in 2011. The loanable funds model would predict that, as a result of the increase in the surplus

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Answer: both the government debt and interest rates decreased between 2010 and 2011

Q63: Suppose the government were to replace the income tax with a consumption tax so that interest on savings was not taxed. The result would be that the interest rate

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Answer: would decrease and investment would increase

Q64: Suppose the issuer of a bond fails to pay some of the interest or principal that was promised to the bondholders. This failure is referred to as a

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Answer: default

Q65: Suppose the market for loanable funds is in equilibrium. What would happen in the market for loanable funds, other things the same, if the Congress and President increased the maximum contribution limits to 401(k) and 403(b) tax- deferred retirement accounts

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Answer: the interest rate would decrease and the quantity of loanable funds would increase

Q66: Suppose the only professional hockey team within 500 miles is the Salt Lake City Slappers team. If the State of Utah imposes a profits tax on sports teams, the Slappers will

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Answer: Raise ticket prices

Q67: Suppose the U.S. offered a tax credit for firms that built new factories in the U.S. Then

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Answer: the demand for loanable funds would shift rightward, initially creating a shortage of loanable funds at the original interest rate

Q68: Suppose there is a shortage in the market for loanable funds. Is the interest rate above or below its equilibrium level? How do desired saving and desired investment at this interest rate compare

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Answer: The interest rate is below its equilibrium level. Desired investment is greater than desired saving

Q69: Survey feedback is a convenient way to unfreeze a company’s management and employees by crystallizing the fact that the organization does have problems to solve

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Answer: Correct – True

Q70: Survey research and team building are technostructural organizational development techniques

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q71: Surveys have found that___has the greatest influence on organizational performance and employee productivity

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Answer: goal-setting

Q72: Susie’s department is implementing many projects. She finds herself starting and stopping work on one task to go and work on another task, and then return to the work on the original task. Susie is experiencing

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Answer: Multitasking

Q73: SWIFT have___digital code number

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Answer: 11

Q74: SWIFT helps

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Answer: To exchange information among banks and financial institutions

Q75: SWIFT STANDS

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Answer: Society for world wide inter bank financial telecommunication

Q76: SWIFT used the processor

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Answer: SAP

Q77: SWOT analysis includes___

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Answer: Al of the above—a. Strengths b. Opportunities c. Threats d. Weakness All of these—a. Corporate strategy b. Business level strategy c. Functional strategy d. Strategic plan

Q78: SWOT analysis should appraise a firms___

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Answer: All of these—a. Strengths b. Weaknesses c. Opportunities d. Threats

Q79: SWOT should be

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Answer: Focused on key issues and as specific as possible

Q80: Syndicated research is an economical approach for collecting specific research needed by one firm for a specific problem

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q81: System analysts use decomposition diagrams to depict a top-down flow of data through a system and the processing performed by the system

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Answer: False – Answer

Q82: System analysts use primitive diagrams to depict a data flow for a single event handler

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Answer: False – Answer

Q83: System design is also called physical design

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Answer: True – Answer

Q84: System designer’s view of data is never constrained

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Answer: False – Answer

Q85: System models and/or prototypes are the deliverables of the logical design phase

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Answer: True – Answer

Q86: System owners specify the business processes in terms of process requirements for a new system

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Answer: False – Answer

Q87: systematic and orderly process of determining the worth of a job in relation to other jobs is___

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Answer: job evaluation

Q88: Systematic error is associated with

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Answer: Validity

Q89: Systematic errors in measurement, or inferences made from those measurements that are related to different identifiable group membership characteristics such as age sex, or race is referred to as

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Answer: bias

Q90: Systems analysts are frequently involved in the customization of the ERP applications and the redesign of business processes to use the ERP solutions

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Answer: True – Answer

Q91: Tactical information is

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Answer: Partly structured

Q92: Tactical information is needed for

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Answer: Short range planning

Q93: Tactical information is required by

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Answer: Middle managers

Q94: Taking advantage of the flexibility between the lower limit and upper limit of the price for similar product is

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Answer: Creative pricing

Q95: Taking someone else work and presenting it as ones own without providing adequate credit or compensation to the source is an ethical issue in

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Answer: communications

Q96: Taking the direct approach in a bad-news message provides the following advantages except

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Answer: it avoids turning the issue over to an attorney

Q97: Team Development is a very critical component of Human Resource Management. All the following are inputs to Team Development except

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Answer: Staffing pool description

Q98: Team development is based on the-

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Answer: Individual development of each team member

Q99: Team development is undertaken to improve performance. Which of the following is not a way in which team development improves team performance

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Answer: Development of technical breakthroughs

Q100: Team members are arguing about the location of specification limits on a control chart. The discussion is becoming heated when the project manager walks in and says, “It seems that the real problem here is that we do not have enough information about the customer’s specifications. Let’s” This is an example of

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Answer: problem solving