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Q1: The process of developing a vision and mission statement includes which of these as the first activity

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Answer: Have a brainstorming session on whether the organization should have a mission statement. D

Q2: The process of developing a written scope statement as the basis for future project decisions is called

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Answer: Scope planning

Q3: The process of developing an applicants’ pool for job openings in an Organisation is called

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Answer: Recruitment

Q4: The process of developing and maintaining a strategic fit between the organization’s goals and capabilities and its changing marketing opportunities is called

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Answer: Strategic planning

Q5: The process of developing the applicant’s pool for job openings in an organization is called___

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Answer: Selection

Q6: The process of dividing the world market into distinct subsets of customers

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Answer: market segmentation

Q7: The process of drawing a sample from a population is known as___

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Answer: Sampling

Q8: The process of evaluating an employee’s current and/or past performance relative to his or her performance standards is called___

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Answer: performance appraisal

Q9: The process of evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis to provide confidence that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards is called

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Answer: Quality Assurance

Q10: The process of examining a training program is called___

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Answer: training evaluation

Q11: The process of identifying and defining a product or service is called

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Answer: Procurement planning

Q12: The process of identifying which products or services can be procured outside the project organization is done as part of

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Answer: Procurement Planning

Q13: The process of identifying which project needs can be best met by procuring products or services outside the project organization is called _ _

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Answer: Procurement Planning

Q14: The process of marking segments of data with symbols, descriptive words, or category names is known as___

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Answer: Coding

Q15: The process of monitoring specific project results to determine if they comply with relevant quality standards is called

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Answer: Quality Control

Q16: The process of obtaining quotations, bids, offers or proposals as appropriate is called

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Answer: Solicitation

Q17: The process of performing activities that increase the value of goods or services to consumers is known as

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Answer: Value creation

Q18: The process of performing activities that increase the value of goods or services to consumers is known as: Select correct option

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Answer: Value chain

Q19: The process of quantifying data is referred to as___

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Answer: Enumeration

Q20: The process of requirements discovery consists of the following activities, except

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Answer: sampling of existing documentation, forms and files

Q21: The process of strategy management starts with___

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Answer: Determination of mission

Q22: The process of verifying that there is a performance deficiency and determining if such deficiencies should be corrected through training or through some other means is called___

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Answer: performance analysis

Q23: The process of verifying that there is a performance deficiency and determining if such deficiency should be corrected through training or through some other means is called___

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Answer: performance analysis

Q24: The process of___feedback seeks views from a range of relevant viewpoints – peers, superiors and subordinates, and sometimes even outsiders like customers and suppliers – based on a framework of competencies

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Answer: 360 degree

Q25: The process that is not a part of time management is

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Answer: Resource Planning

Q26: The process which best defines the locating and, encouraging potential employees to apply for jobs is

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Answer: Recruitment

Q27: The processes that drive behavior in Bandura’s model are called

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Answer: reciprocal determinism

Q28: The producer must determine the rights and responsibilities of participating channel members

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Answer: Correct – True

Q29: The Production Order Quantity model

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Answer: is appropriate when units are sold/used as they are produced

Q30: The products which need less specialised information are

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Answer: high touch products

Q31: The profile model plots a graph on a

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Answer: risk-return pair of axes

Q32: The program evaluation and review technique (PERT) method of scheduling differs from the critical path method (CPM) because the PERT method

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Answer: Uses weighted averages of activity durations to calculate project duration

Q33: The project charter should be issued by

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Answer: Manager external to project

Q34: The project is formally initiated or authorized to continue when

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Answer: B and C

Q35: The Project Life Cycle

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Answer: Defines what work should be done in each phase

Q36: The project life cycle typically passes sequentially through

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Answer: Four Stages

Q37: The project management activity involving estimation includes

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Answer: analysis of the work breakdown

Q38: The Project Management Body of Knowledge Guide definition of a project indicates that a project is

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Answer: temporary

Q39: The project manager is responsible for initiating, planning, executing, and closing down the project

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Answer: Correct – True

Q40: The project manager should be assigned during what phase

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Answer: Initiation

Q41: The project manager should be assigned___as an output from the Initiation process

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Answer: As early in the project as is feasible

Q42: The project manager typically share problems with you and the team and prepares evaluating solution as a group. Which type of leadership style is your project manager using

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Answer: Consensuas

Q43: The project manager’s leadership style should be matched to the corresponding developmental level of the project team and should move through successive steps in the following order

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Answer: Directing, coaching, supporting, delegating

Q44: The project manager, when communicating with an action-oriented person should-

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Answer: Be as brief as possible

Q45: The project maturity model developed by the Center for Business Practices would have___rings if a spider web diagram were used

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Answer: five

Q46: The project Network Diagram is an input to what process

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Answer: Schedule Development

Q47: The project plan is used to do all of the following except

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Answer: Identify risks that arise during project execution

Q48: The project schedule is not used to determine

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Answer: The project’s budget

Q49: The project team has added some additional functionality which was not required as part of the project. However the customer is satisfied with the project. From a quality perspective

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Answer: This is not acceptable quality because gold plating was done which is not advisable

Q50: The project team is working on an important and complex project that requires a lot of coordination. Under these circumstances, the BEST strategy is to

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Answer: have a war room

Q51: The prospecting step in the selling process includes identifying and___the prospects. Without both of them much time and effort will be wasted

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Answer: qualifying

Q52: The psychological factor of entrepreneurship includes___

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Answer: All of these—a. Innovation b. Function of high achievement c. Organization building d. Desire to influence others

Q53: The purchase of a new house is the one form of

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Answer: household spending that is investment rather than consumption

Q54: The pure tangible goods and pure services are two extremes of

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Answer: market offering

Q55: The purpose of a business is to

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Answer: create and maintain profitable customers

Q56: The purpose of a mission statement is to declare all of these except

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Answer: an annual financial plan

Q57: The purpose of a SWOT analysis is to analyze

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Answer: The business environment and the strategic capability of an organization relative to its competitors

Q58: The purpose of any Human resource information system is to

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Answer: Assist management in decision making

Q59: The purpose of backdating stock options is to give the stock-option holder

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Answer: sure profit on the options

Q60: The purpose of operational feasibility is to understand the degree to which a proposed system will likely solve the business problems or take advantage of opportunities

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Answer: Correct – True

Q61: The purpose of the preliminary screening stage is to eliminate unqualified applicants

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Answer: True – Answer

Q62: The purpose of this type of advertising is to create repeat purchases

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Answer: Reminder

Q63: The push for higher levels of quality does not appear to be customer driven

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q64: The qualities buyers’ dislike most in salespeople includes all of the following except___

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Answer: being too early for an appointment

Q65: The qualities that buyers like most in salespeople include empathy, honesty, dependability, thoroughness, follow-through, and___

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Answer: being a good listener

Q66: The quality of information which does not hide any unpleasant information is known as

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Answer: Trustworthy

Q67: The quality of information which is based on understanding user needs

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Answer: Relevant

Q68: The quality team for the project consists of several groups. Which of the following project participant plays the most important role in the quality function

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Answer: Customer

Q69: The quality team for the project consists of several groups. Which of the following project participants plays the most important role in the quality function

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Answer: Customer

Q70: The question regarding the various channel functions is not whether or not they need to be performed but who is to perform them. All channel functions have three things in common. Which of the following is NOT one of these channel functions

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Answer: They require substantial investments by the producer

Q71: The quotas which combine the features of tariffs and quotas are

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Answer: tariff quotas

Q72: The ratio of debt to GDP in the United States

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Answer: all of these are correct.—a. tends to rise during wars.b. rose during the decade that began in 2001.c. fell during the late 1990s

Q73: The ratio of debt to GDP in the United States has always been less than one

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q74: The ratio of government debt to GDP was higher during the Reagan presidency than at any previous time in U.S. history

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q75: The real interest rate is the

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Answer: interest rate corrected for inflation

Q76: The reason for having the manager participate as a job analyst is to___

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Answer: verify statements are inclusive and accurate

Q77: The reason why organizations are switching from traditional to e-business transaction is___

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Answer: Decreasing costs of transactions

Q78: The reasonable man is

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Answer: The man on the Mumbai train

Q79: The receipt issued by the commanding officer of the ship is

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Answer: mate’s receipt

Q80: The receiver filters messages based on all but the following

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Answer: Distance (Assumes that the media used for distance communication is acceptable (fax or phone is operational)

Q81: The recent wave of corporate mergers and acquisitions has decided, “We need a master brand to leave all our old names behind.” What is this called

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Answer: rebranding

Q82: The reciprocal of the payback period is used to calculate the average rate of return for a project

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Answer: Correct – True

Q83: The registration of trade mark in divided into

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Answer: two parts

Q84: The registration of trade mark in help the for

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Answer: prevention of the use of fraudulent merchandise

Q85: The registration of trade mark may be

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Answer: renewal

Q86: The registration trade mark .is divided in two parts namely

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Answer: partA and part B

Q87: The regression line is

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Answer: the best fitting straight line through the points in the scattergram which minimises the squared deviations from the points

Q88: The relationship between the buyer of a brand and the user of a brand is that

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Answer: Buyer may not make the brand decision but user does

Q89: The relationship is built with a customer over a long period of time is called

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Answer: Customer life time value

Q90: The research participants are described in detail in which section of the research plan

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Answer: Method

Q91: The research proposal may include information about all of the following except

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Answer: what the possible solutions are

Q92: The research which seeks to discover new relationships in marketing arena is

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Answer: exploratory research

Q93: The researcher has secretly placed him or herself (as a member) in the group that is being studied. This researcher may be which of the following

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Answer: A complete participant

Q94: The respective territorial limit of modern offices are

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Answer: the state of Kerala

Q95: The respective territorial limits of Delhi offices are

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Answer: the state of Rajasthan

Q96: The respects territorial limits of Calcutta offices are

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Answer: the state of Chennai

Q97: The respects territorial limits of Mumbai offices are

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Answer: the state of Madhya Pradesh

Q98: The response of consumers to a particular display watched in an actual store is

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Answer: observational research

Q99: The response rate to a survey affects

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Answer: how representative the sample is

Q100: The results of communication planning will be reviewed and revised as needed

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Answer: C through out the project
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