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Q1: Exclusive distribution involves the use of more than a few but less than all of the intermediaries that are willing to carry your product

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q2: Executing processes are concerned with

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Answer: Coordinating people and other resources to carry out the plan

Q3: Executive recruiters are also called___

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Answer: head hunters

Q4: Existence checks determine whether all required fields on the input have actually been entered

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Answer: True – Answer

Q5: Exit interview is not taken to find out why the employee is leaving the company

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q6: Exit interviews can be used to explain___to departing employees

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Answer: All of these—s/b—All of these—a. rehiring rights b. benefits c. confidentiality agreements

Q7: Expansion and contraction of demand mean

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Answer: Movements along the same demand curve

Q8: Expenses associated with advertising, establishing a new account, and mailing catalogs are examples of___

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Answer: acquisition costs

Q9: Expert judgement will often be required to access the input of initiation, Such expertise may be provided by any group or individual with specialized knowledge or training and is available from many sources ,including the following

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Answer: Consultant, Stake holders and industry groups

Q10: Expert systems have been used in which of the fields

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Answer: All of these—AerospaceAirline industryBanking & finance

Q11: Experts disagree about the need to state a career objective on your resume

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Answer: True – Answer

Q12: Exploding demand and short product life-spans for high-tech gadgets such as cell phones, personal computers, and various other personal electronic devices is creating growing concerns over___

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Answer: e-waste

Q13: External environment of an organization includes___

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Answer: Strength

Q14: External links may provides incentives to

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Answer: Introduce improvements to products

Q15: Extra units that are held in inventory to reduce stockouts are called

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Answer: Safety stock

Q16: Extranet requires

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Answer: As a good intra-organisational protocol

Q17: Facilitating and core process differ in that core are sequential in nature facilitating are intermittent and dependent on the type of project.What are not on the facilitating process

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Answer: None of the above are core process

Q18: Facilitators neither negotiate contracts or prices nor take title or possession of the goods but facilitate the orderly transfer of product from producer to consumer

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Answer: Correct – True

Q19: Facilities for sale and purchase of agricultural products are available in___

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Answer: regulated market

Q20: Factors affecting job design are___

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Answer: all of these —s/b—All of above—(a) behavioral factors (b) environmental factors (c) organizational factors (d) all of these

Q21: Fast decisions can be taken when the organization practices

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Answer: HRM

Q22: Feasibility analysis addresses the question of “Is this problem worth looking at?”

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Answer: False – Answer

Q23: Feasibility concerns

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Answer: Whether an organization has the resources and competences to deliver a strategy

Q24: Feature creep is the unexpected and gradual growth of requirements during an information systems project, while scope creep is the uncontrolled addition of technical features to a system

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Answer: False – Answer

Q25: FEMA Act is enacted in

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Answer: 1999

Q26: FEMA replaces by

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Answer: MRTP

Q27: FEMA stands for

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Answer: Foreign Exchange Management Act

Q28: FERA stands for

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Answer: Foreign Exchange Regulation Act

Q29: File server architectures are practical only for small database applications to be shared by relatively few users

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Answer: True – Answer

Q30: Finally, you still have the same data (a sample size of 7, a mean of 8 and a standard deviation of 4.2) plus the standard error and you know how to calculate the 95percent confidence interval. Thus what is the 95percent confidence interval

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Answer: 4.90 to 11.10

Q31: Finance, banking etc., are called___services

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Answer: Business

Q32: Financial crises seldom involve economic downturns

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q33: Financial intermediaries are

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Answer: financial institutions through which savers can indirectly provide funds to borrowers

Q34: Financial intermediaries are the only type of financial institution

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q35: Financial models are all predicated on the___principal

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Answer: time value of money

Q36: Find the value of the first-order derivative of the function assignment mcq when x = 9

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Answer: 1.5

Q37: Finding or attracting applicants for an employer’s open positions is known as___

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Answer: employee recruiting

Q38: Firing the non-performing employees, HR manager is said to perform the

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Answer: Decisional role

Q39: Firms can earn economic profits even in the long run if

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Answer: There are significant barriers to entry

Q40: Firms can predict job performance of applicants by modeling the relationship between success on the job and responses on the application form

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Answer: Correct – True

Q41: Firms can reduce potential problems associated with rehiring former employees by crediting them with the years of service they had accumulated before they left

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Answer: Correct – True

Q42: Firms located in science part compared to those located off science park are

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Answer: More or less innovative

Q43: Firms need to satisfy consumer expectations by creating reasonable expectations through promotional efforts and maintaining consistent quality so those expectations are fulfilled

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Answer: Correct – True

Q44: Firms that are basically under the control of a single individual and produce a limited number of products/services are referred to as following___mode

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Answer: Entrepreneurial

Q45: Firms under perfect competition in the short run can earn only

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Answer: All of these— a. Economic Profitb. Normal profitc. Loss

Q46: First thing Tuesday morning ,one of your team member drops into your office looking very thrilled. He eagerly tells you he is adding extra functionality to the project without imparting the cost the schedule. As the project manager your first step should be

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Answer: Understand what the new functionality will add to the project and then action accordingly

Q47: Fitness to cost can be obtained by

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Answer: Obtaining high quality and low cost products

Q48: Fixing a high price for a new product will be called as___

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Answer: price skimming

Q49: Float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project finish date. It can also be called all the following except

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Answer: Free Float

Q50: FLSA status is located in the___section of a job description

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Answer: job identification

Q51: Focus group interviews are a form of quantitative research

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q52: Focus groups

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Answer: stimulate discussion among participants

Q53: Focus groups are a way to gather primary data quickly, but at a relatively high cost

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q54: Focusing on describing or explaining data versus going beyond immediate data and making inferences is the difference between___

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Answer: Descriptive and inferential

Q55: Following are some of the tools and techniques in project communication management except

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Answer: C presentation techniques

Q56: Following are the inputs to performance reporting except

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Answer: C change requests[5]

Q57: Following documents will be reviewed as a part of administration closure

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Answer: A documentation of product of the project DB performance measurement documentationC project recordsall of these

Q58: Following parliamentary procedure is not used in business meetings

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Answer: False – Answer

Q59: Following special schemes are announced by Indian Government Under which import can be permitted at zero duty or at less duty:-

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Answer: Export promotion capital goods scheme, Diamond and Jewellary promotion scheme, Import by 100percent export oriented units

Q60: For a closed economy, GDP is USD11 trillion, consumption is USD7 trillion, taxes are USD2.5 trillion and the government runs a surplus of USD1 trillion. What are private saving and national saving

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Answer: USD1.5 trillion and USD2.5 trillion, respectively

Q61: For a closed economy, GDP is USD12 trillion, consumption is USD7 trillion, taxes net of transfers are USD3 trillion and the government runs a deficit of USD1 trillion. What are private saving and national saving

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Answer: USD2 trillion and USD1 trillion, respectively

Q62: For a closed economy, GDP is USD18 trillion, consumption is USD13 trillion, taxes are USD2 trillion and the government runs a deficit of USD1 trillion. What are private saving and national saving

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Answer: USD3 trillion and USD2 trillion, respectively

Q63: For a closed economy, the sum of private saving and public saving must equal investment

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Answer: Correct – True

Q64: For a given price level aggregate demand curve shifts if there is change in (a)government expenditure (b)investment expenditure

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Answer: Both (a) and (b)

Q65: For a minimization problem using a Simplex table, we know we have reached the optimal solution when the assignment mcq row

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Answer: has no negative numbers in it

Q66: For a nondiscriminating monopolist, describe the relationship between market price (P), average revenue (AR), and marginal revenue (MR)

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Answer: P = AR > MR

Q67: For a project to be successful, what is the primary requirement

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Answer: Customer Satisfaction

Q68: For all practical purposes, a customer mailing list is about the same thing as a customer database

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q69: For an economy that engages in international trade, GDP is divided into four components. Which of the following items is not one of those components

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Answer: national saving

Q70: For an imaginary closed economy, T = USD5,000; S = USD11,000; C = USD48,000; and the government is running a budget surplus of USD1,000. Then

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Answer: private saving = USD10,000 and GDP = USD63,000

Q71: For an open economy, the equation Y = C + I + G + NX is an identity. If we define national saving, S, as the total income in the economy that is left after paying for consumption and government purchases, then for an open economy, it is true that

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Answer: S = I + NX

Q72: For buyers, direct marketing is convenient, easy to use, and private. For sellers it is___

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Answer: All of these—a. a great tool for building customer relationships b. great to find customers that a firm might otherwise overlook c. a low-cost, efficient alternative for reaching their markets

Q73: For carrying out B2B e-Commerce the following infrastructure is essential___

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Answer: Electronic data interchange standards

Q74: For carrying out B2C e-Commerce the following infrastructure is essential___

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Answer: Secure payment services

Q75: For carrying out C2C e-Commerce the following infrastructure is essential___corporate network

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Answer: Secure payment services

Q76: For convenience, it is a good idea to place all the visuals at the end of a report

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Answer: False – Answer

Q77: For doing Quality Planning, you are going to use Design of Experiments to determine which factors might influence specific variables. What variable(s) can be used in your analysis

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Answer: Weight

Q78: For each activity PERT analysis requires

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Answer: All of these—s/b—All of these—a. an optimistic time b. a most probable time c. a pessimistic time

Q79: For established firms, a strategy for selling both through established intermediaries and the Internet includes which of the following

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Answer: Offer different brands over the Internet

Q80: For forecasting the demand for manpower, the important techniques used are

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Answer: all of these —s/b—All of above—(a) Delphi Techniques (b) Statistical Techniques (c) Work Study Techniques (d) all of these

Q81: For many products and services, there are wide variations in profitability across customers

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Answer: Correct – True

Q82: For most firms, which of the following is the most effective source for recruiting new hires

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Answer: employee referral programs

Q83: For secure EDI transmission on internet

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Answer: S/MIME is used

Q84: For Sony, high-performing products like the Playstation games consoles remain “stars” in which the board have continued to invest heavily in the competitive battle with Nintendo and Microsoft. Sony’s range of smartphones and tablets have a relatively low market share but in fast-growing markets. Global sales of desktops and laptops are now firmly in the decline stage of their product life cycle and Sony Vaio’s low market share made it very unlikely that it would be able to compete effectively against the likes of China’s Lenovo. As per the BCG matrix, Sony’s Vaio’s business can be categorized as

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Answer: Question marks

Q85: For taking decisions data must be

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Answer: Processed correctly

Q86: For the brick-and-click companies, adding e-commerce channel creates the threat of a___from retailers, brokers, agents, and other intermediaries

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Answer: backlash

Q87: For useful performance reporting the work results should be reported

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Answer: A most accurate wayB more consistent way—a and b

Q88: For which level of visibility, the attributes of an object can be accessed and methods can be invoked by any other methods in any other class? (check)

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Answer: public

Q89: For which of the following jobs is direct observation not recommended to collect data used in a job analysis

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Answer: engineer

Q90: For which of the following products would price discrimination be easiest

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Answer: Haircuts

Q91: For which product is no disposition involved

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Answer: ice cream cone

Q92: For which type of firm has research shown that reducing the number of customers who leave by 5 percent resulted in the highest percentage increase in average profits per customer

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Answer: branch banks

Q93: Forcing, as a means to manage conflict

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Answer: Exerts one’s view at the potential expense of another party. (Forcing establishes a win-lose situation)

Q94: Forecasting the overall human resource requirement in accordance with the organizational plans is one of the key aspects of demand forecasting

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Answer: Correct – True

Q95: Foreign currency as per EFMA act, 1999 means

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Answer: any currency other than Indian currency

Q96: Foreign exchange transaction are regulated by

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Answer: Central Government

Q97: Foreign investment that starts up a new enterprise is called as

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Answer: Green field enterprise

Q98: Formal acceptance by the client or sponsor of the project is prepared and distributed during the___process

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Answer: administrative closeout

Q99: Formal acceptance by the client or sponsor of the project should be preapred and distributed during which process

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Answer: Administrative Closeout

Q100: Formal acceptance of a project can be described when

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Answer: Customer signoff the product is documented