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Q1: Customer databases are invaluable tools for the direct marketer. Typical, they contain the customers’ demographics, psychographics, buying behavior, and other relevant information

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Answer: Correct – True

Q2: Customer delivered value is the difference between total customer value and total customer cost of a marketing product. This value can be interpreted as what

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Answer: Profit to the customer

Q3: Customer demands from suppliers are

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Answer: all of these given options — (a) Good people to handle them (b) Good price and discounts (c) Good Environment

Q4: Customer metrics include all of the following EXCEPT

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Answer: Market share

Q5: customer relationship management analyzes customer’s data for following purposes EXCEPT: Select correct option

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Answer: Delivers personalized and efficient marketing, sales, and service through multi-channel collaboration

Q6: Customer relationship management applications dealing with the analysis of customer data to provide information for improving business performance best describes by which of the following

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Answer: Analytical customer relationship management applications

Q7: Customer relationship management does not move around which of the following

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Answer: Customer retention

Q8: Customer relationship management is selling product by using which one of the following approaches

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Answer: Psychological inducement

Q9: Customer relationship management program is actually

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Answer: Customer oriented

Q10: Customer retention gives free advertising through

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Answer: word of mouth

Q11: Customer retention is perhaps the best measure of quality-a service firm’s ability to hang on to its customers depends on how consistently it delivers value to them

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Answer: Correct – True

Q12: Customer risk is highest with

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Answer: Cost plus incentive fees

Q13: Customer Service Culture includes all EXCEPT: Select correct option

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Answer: Traits

Q14: Customer service facilitation includes EXCEPT

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Answer: Divert attention of customer

Q15: Customer service facilitation includes EXCEPT: Select correct option

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Answer: Divert attention of customer

Q16: Customer service is another element of product strategy. The first step is to survey customers periodically to asses the value of current services and to obtain ideas for new ones. From this careful monitoring, Cadillac has learned that buyers are very upset by repairs that are not done correctly the first time. What is the name of these types of services

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Answer: product support services

Q17: Customer services are defined as: Select correct option

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Answer: Provision of all resources and benefits to customers

Q18: Customer services department is responsible of providing services at which time

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Answer: After purchase

Q19: Customer who always use your product over competitor’s product are called

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Answer: Loyal customers

Q20: Customer’s evaluation of the difference between all the benefits and all the costs of a marketing offer relative to those of competing offers refers to which of the following concepts

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Answer: Customer cost

Q21: Customers being able to buy products and services on the Internet is a result of

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Answer: E-marketing

Q22: Customers come to know a brand through a wide range of contacts and touch points. These include word of mouth, personal interactions with company people, telephone interactions, and company Web pages. Many brands are not maintained by advertising but by brand experience

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Answer: Correct – True

Q23: Customers must have an account with central online bank in most digital cash Systems___

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Answer: Compulsory

Q24: Customers often do not judge product values and costs accurately or objectively. Instead, they act on___

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Answer: perceived value

Q25: Customers who always use your product over competitor’s product refers to which one of the following customers

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Answer: Loyal customer

Q26: Cycle counting

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Answer: is a process by which inventory records are periodically verified

Q27: Data by itself is not useful unless

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Answer: It is processed to obtain information

Q28: Data entry is the process of translating the source data or document into a computer-readable format

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Answer: True – Answer

Q29: Data flows should always begin or end at a process

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Answer: True – Answer

Q30: Data mining can not be done if

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Answer: operational data has not been archived

Q31: Data mining is used to aid in

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Answer: detecting patterns in operational data

Q32: Data mining requires

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Answer: large quantities of operational data stored over a period of time

Q33: Data modeling is a technique for organizing, documenting, and modeling functional requirements

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Answer: False – Answer

Q34: Data processing is

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Answer: Mostly associated with commercial work

Q35: Data rejected by edit program are

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Answer: corrected and re-entered

Q36: Data that has already been collected or published is

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Answer: secondary data

Q37: Data that has been collected or published already is

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Answer: secondary data

Q38: Data warehouse stores data extracted from strategic databases

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Answer: False – Answer

Q39: Database architecture is the specification of the technologies to be used to implement information systems

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Answer: False – Answer

Q40: Dawn and her two daughters went to see Pride and Prejudice at the movie theater. They all loved the movie and came out saying “we’re so glad she married Mr. Darcy!” This movie provided them with___

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Answer: affective performance

Q41: DBMS refers

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Answer: Data base management system

Q42: DDI is an organisation working to develop organizational culture. It started in

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Answer: USA

Q43: De jobbing can be described as___

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Answer: encouraging employees not to limit themselves to what’s on their job descriptions

Q44: Dealing directly with conflict is always destructive to a team

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Answer: False – Answer

Q45: Deciding how to use the resulting information is the___step in doing a job analysis

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Answer: first

Q46: Decision makers who are concerned with tactical (short-term) operational problems and decision making are

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Answer: middle managers

Q47: Decision models used in project initiation include

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Answer: Comparative approaches and scoring models

Q48: Decision support systems are essential for

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Answer: Top level strategic decision making

Q49: Decision support systems are used by

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Answer: Top-level managers

Q50: Decision support systems are used for

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Answer: Providing strategic information to management

Q51: Decision support systems that include marketing models help managers by showing the relationships among marketing variables

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Answer: Correct – True

Q52: Decisions at which level of management tend to be more value-oriented and conceptual

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Answer: Corporate

Q53: Decisions concerning plant location, distribution channels, geographic coverage and market segmentation are typically made at

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Answer: The business level

Q54: Decisions which are governed by clear rules are known as unstructured decisions

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q55: Decomposition is

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Answer: Subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components.

Q56: Defences is an action for infringement are

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Answer: no title for the use of plaintiff

Q57: Defensive registrar is possible only in respect of

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Answer: invented words

Q58: Define ethical absolutism/cognitivism

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Answer: Claims there are eternal, universally applicable moral principles. Right and wrong are objective qualities

Q59: Define morality

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Answer: Defining what is right and wrong for an individual or a community

Q60: Defining the problem is always the easiest step in the marketing research process

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q61: Defining the problem is often the most difficult step in the marketing research process

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Answer: Correct – True

Q62: Defining the problem is the first step in marketing research–and is usually the easiest job for the researcher

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q63: Deflection or transfer of a risk to another party is part of which of the following risk response categories

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Answer: Mitigation

Q64: Delegating some of the selling functions to intermediaries’ means loss of control over how and to whom the products are sold

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Answer: Correct – True

Q65: Delivering learning content on demand via electronic devices when needed is termed___learning

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Answer: mobile

Q66: Delivering products and services that push is called___

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Answer: Continuous Excellence

Q67: Delivering what customers want with hassle-free service and superior value is Called___

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Answer: Service excellence

Q68: Delivering what customers want with hasslefree service and superior value is called

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Answer: Service excellence

Q69: Demand for a given item is said to be dependent if

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Answer: there is a clearly identifiable parent

Q70: Demand for a product ‘X’ for Jan to June is given in the table. Calculate the demand for the product using 3 – month simple moving average for July in units Months Jan Feb March April May June
Demand (in units) 100 150 160 120 180 140

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Answer: 147

Q71: Demand for hum resources and management is created by

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Answer: Expansion of industry

Q72: Demand forecast is not the process of estimating the future quantity and quality of people required

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Answer: Correct – True

Q73: Demand is created when

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Answer: People who can afford something want to buy it

Q74: Deming believed performance appraisal was central to quality management

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q75: Dependent demand and independent demand items differ in that

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Answer: all of these are true

Q76: Deployment of which resource is difficult to master

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Answer: Human

Q77: Describing the job in terms of the measurable, observable, and behavioral competencies necessary for good job performance is called a___

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Answer: competency-based job analysis

Q78: Description of the company’s product, market and technological areas of emphasis is contained in the

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Answer: Company mission

Q79: Design of experiments is an analytical technique which helps

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Answer: Identify which variables have the most influence on the overall out come

Q80: Designing a marketing channel involves analyzing customer needs, establishing channel objectives, and identifying cost saving channels, identifying key channel partners, and evaluating all alternatives

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q81: Designing a marketing channel system involves analyzing customer needs,___, identifying major channel alternatives, and evaluating major channel alternatives

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Answer: establishing channel objectives

Q82: Designing and validating selection processes involves a thorough comprehensive job analysis, person and job specifications, choice of selection and assessment tools required. This should be completed by a validation study to monitor and refine the recruitment process. Which stages in the process tend not to be completed well

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Answer: Job analysis and validation

Q83: Designing sales force strategy and structure is not a major step in sales force management that a typical company might encounter

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q84: Designing the sales force organization around the needs of individual buyers is characteristic of which of the following sales force structures

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Answer: customer sales force

Q85: Desirable qualities for a brand name include all of the following except___

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Answer: The brand should almost always be a long word to get attention

Q86: Destructive team roles includes which of the following

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Answer: Withdrawer, Topic jumper and recognition seeker

Q87: Detailed reports present information with little or no filtering or restrictions

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Answer: True – Answer

Q88: Detailed specifications, schematics, and schedules are all developed during the conceptualization stage

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q89: Detailed specifications, schematics, and schedules are all developed during the___stage

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Answer: planning

Q90: Details organisational and individual approaches to reviewing, monitoring and improving the quality of information within an organisation

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Answer: Information quality policy

Q91: Determining and delivering the required levels of quality is the responsibility of

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Answer: Project Manager / Project Management Team

Q92: Determining the sample interval (represented by k), randomly selecting a number between 1 and k, and including each kth element in your sample are the steps for which form of sampling

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Answer: Systematic Sampling

Q93: Determining what resources and quantities will be used for the project is part of

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Answer: Resource planning

Q94: Developing a job description and job specification is the___step in the job analysis process

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Answer: sixth

Q95: Developing a product or service involves defining the benefits that it will offer. These benefits are communicated and delivered by___such as quality, features, and style and design

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Answer: product attributes

Q96: Developing a written scope statement as the basis for future project decisions is called

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Answer: Scope planning

Q97: Developing new products to tap foreign market is

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Answer: product invention

Q98: Development (creative) measures under IDRA deal with

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Answer: development councils

Q99: Development council is a

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Answer: statutory body

Q100: Development of entrepreneurial skill is based on___

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Answer: All of these—a. Business skill b. Technical skill c. Managerial skill