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Q1: Comtrex Corporation is a large, complex account that Cisco Systems would like to obtain. The problem is that Comtrex needs sales, marketing, engineering, and finance questions answered before any real chance of obtaining its business is possible. Which of the following selling approaches would probably be best for Cisco Systems to pursue if it would like to get Comtrex’s business

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Answer: use team selling

Q2: Concept of entrepreneurship includes___

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Answer: All of these—a. Risk bearing capacity b. A function of organization and coordination c. Managerial skill d. Innovation ability

Q3: Concerning “authorship” in educational research, intellectual ownership is predominantly a function of

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Answer: Creative contribution

Q4: Concerns about the bankruptcy of an appliance manufacturer diminish after a new CEO is appointed and some of the company’s less productive factories are sold. What type of risk for bondholders falls? What happens to the interest rate on this company’s bonds

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Answer: default risk, The interest rate falls

Q5: Conducting surveys is the most common method of generating

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Answer: Primary data

Q6: Configuration management does all of the following except

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Answer: Defines the steps by which official project documents may be changed

Q7: Configuration Management, Performance Measurement and Project Management Information Systems are all

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Answer: Tools and techniques used in overall change control

Q8: Confirmation that the project has met all customer requirements for the product of the project is provided as part of

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Answer: Project Closure

Q9: Conflict is always destructive to a team

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Answer: False – Answer

Q10: Conformance to specifications

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Answer: leads to increased efficiency

Q11: Conformance to the requirements

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Answer: Is the condition of the product or service in relation to customer’s requirements

Q12: Congress and the President allow people to make greater contributions to tax-deferred savings accounts. Which curve in the market for loanable funds would shift, which direction would it shift, what would happen to the interest rate, and what would happen to investment spending

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Answer: The supply of loanable funds would shift right. The interest rate would fall, so investment would rise

Q13: Congress and the President implement an investment tax credit. Which curve in the market for loanable funds shifts, which direction does it shift, and what happens to the interest rate

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Answer: The demand for loanable funds shifts right. The interest rate rises

Q14: Connie just purchased her first new car, and she’s actually feeling a little bad about it. She’s concerned about how much money she spent and how long she will be making car payments. She’s not sure she made the right choice, either. She liked another car a little better, but ended up purchasing another model. Connie is experiencing___

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Answer: postpurchase dissonance

Q15: Consequences that discourage repetition of a particular behavior are called

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Answer: negative reinforcement

Q16: Consider the expressions T – G and Y – T – C. Which of the following statements is correct

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Answer: The first of these is public saving; the second one is private saving

Q17: Consider the following data to answer the next three questions.
You have the following sample data; a sample size of 7, a mean of 8 and a standard deviation of 4.2. From this, what is the standard error

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Answer: 1.58

Q18: Consider the following linear programming problem:assignment mcq Which of the following points (X,Y) could be a feasible corner point

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Answer: (120,0)

Q19: Consider the following linear programming problem:assignment mcq Which of the following points (X,Y) is feasible

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Answer: -30100

Q20: Consider the following linear programming problem:assignment mcq Which of the following points (X,Y) is in the feasible region

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Answer: none of the above—s/b—None of these—a) (30,60) b) (105,0) c) (100,10)

Q21: Consider the following linear programming problem:assignment mcq Which of the following points (X,Y) is feasible

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Answer: (60,30)

Q22: Consider the supply equation P = 7 + 2Q2 By evaluating the price elasticity of supply at the point P = 105, estimate the percentage increase in supply when the price rises by 7percent

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Answer: 3.75percent

Q23: Consider three different closed economies with the following national income statistics. Country A has taxes of USD40 billion, transfers of USD20 billion, and government expenditures on goods and services of USD30 billion. County B has private savings of USD60 billion, and investment expenditures of USD40 billion. Country C has GDP of USD300 billion, investment of USD90, consumption of USD180 billion, taxes of USD60 billion and transfers of USD20 billion. From this information, we know that

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Answer: country B has the largest government budget deficit

Q24: Considerable time has been spent negotiating the contract between both the vendor and the purchaser over the last 7 months. Today is suppose to be the last meeting to finalize one outstanding issue. At this meeting emotions are now at an all time high, when out of the blue, the vendor starts to pack her briefcase to leave. What type of negotiating strategy is the vendor using in this situation

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Answer: Withdral

Q25: Considering the same sample, convert the score of 10 to a z-score

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Answer: 0.48

Q26: Constraints do not include

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Answer: Impacts of weather

Q27: Constructive feedback is just as effective after a long interval as a short interval between the recipient’s behaviour and the feedback

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Answer: False – Answer

Q28: Consumer and targeted to businesses is known as___

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Answer: Consumer to Business (C2B)

Q29: Consumers might experience guilt by the use of a product or a service

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Answer: Correct – True

Q30: Consumers that exhibit a positively biased behavior toward a specific brand are exhibiting___

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Answer: brand loyalty

Q31: Contemporary Information Systems are interfacing with customers and suppliers using

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Answer: Both —CRMSCM

Q32: Contextualization refers to the process of identifying when and where an event took place

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Answer: Correct – True

Q33: Contingency planning is a means to___risks to the project through a formal process and provides the resources to meet the risk events

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Answer: Address

Q34: Contract administration integrates many of the other knowledge areas. All of the following are part of contract administration except

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Answer: Performance measurement

Q35: Contract Administration is the process of ensuring that the seller’s performance meets contractual agreements. All the following will facilitate Contract Administration EXCEPT

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Answer: Evaluation Criteria

Q36: Contract close-out contains

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Answer: Contract documentationB. Procurement auditsC. Formal acceptance and closure—all of these

Q37: Contract Negotiation is carried out as part of

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Answer: Source Selection

Q38: Contracts may be called –

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Answer: An agreement, a subcontract, a purchase order, memorandum of understanding

Q39: Contractual VMSs now constitute one of the most significant developments in the economy and come in three types. Which of the following is a type of contractual VMS

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Answer: Franchise organizations

Q40: Controlling processes are concerned with

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Answer: Ensuring that the project objectives are met by monitoring and measuring progress and taking corrective action when necessary

Q41: Converting raw data into a more meaningful form is called___

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Answer: Processing

Q42: Coordinating a schedule, organizational policies, staffing plans and historical information about risk is an example of

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Answer: Project plan development

Q43: Coordinating changes across knowledge areas is a function of

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Answer: Overall change control

Q44: Core planning processes

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Answer: Have clear dependencies so they must be executed in essentially the same order on most Projects

Q45: Corporate governance success includes three key groups. Which of the following represents these three groups

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Answer: Board of Directors, executive officers, and common shareholders

Q46: Corporate level strategy deals with

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Answer: objectives of the firm

Q47: Corporate level strategy is formulated by___-

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Answer: Top management

Q48: Corporate-level decisions are characterized by

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Answer: Greater profit

Q49: Corporations receive no proceeds from the resale of their stock

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Answer: Correct – True

Q50: Corporations that focus on these three strategies are more profitable

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Answer: Customer satisfaction, revenue generation and service quality

Q51: Correcting or improving efficiency of people and processes is one of the potential problems that may be addressed by an information systems development project

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Answer: True – Answer

Q52: Correlate, combine, cognize and___are the four C’s of CRM Process

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Answer: Connect

Q53: Cost Budgeting is defined as

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Answer: Allocating the cost estimates to the individual work items

Q54: Cost control is concerned with

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Answer: Managing changes when they occur

Q55: Cost efficiency is determined by which of the following drivers

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Answer: Supply Costs, Experience, Product/Process Design and Economies of Scale

Q56: Cost estimates

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Answer: can be presented in summary of detail

Q57: Cost estimates may also be expressed in hours days etc, as long as

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Answer: it does not result in a misstatement of project cost

Q58: Cost estimates may not be express in

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Answer: Staff hours

Q59: Cost estimating includes all of the following except

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Answer: Baselining

Q60: Cost Estimating is most closely linked with which other process

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Answer: Time, Scope

Q61: Cost of quality categories are

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Answer: Prevention, appraisal, internal failure and measurement and testing costs

Q62: Cost of quality includes

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Answer: Cost of all work to build a product or service that conforms to the requirementsB. Training programsC. Cost of all work resulting from nonconformance to the requirementsD. a and b—all of these

Q63: Cost reduction and avoidance, error reduction, and increased flexibility are examples of

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Answer: tangible benefits

Q64: Cost variance for the project for the given period is

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Answer: A 5000B 10000C -5000D -10000

Q65: Cost-benefit analysis ensures that an information system is developed at minimum cost

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Answer: False – Answer

Q66: Costs that continue even if no units are produced are called

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Answer: Fixed costs

Q67: Counselors in state-run employment agencies conduct all of the following activities EXCEPT___

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Answer: filing employer tax reports

Q68: Counterbalancing is___

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Answer: Chosen to control for such things as order and carryover effects*

Q69: Counterintuitive thinking refers to imagining the outcome if a different decision had been made in the past

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q70: CPM stands for___

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Answer: Critical path method

Q71: Creating an environment that facilitates a continuous and . two-way exchange of information between the superiors and the subordinates is the core of

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Answer: High involvement management model

Q72: Creating Work Breakdown Structures (WBS) is very helpful in managing the project. The first step in creating a WBS is

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Answer: Identifying the major deliverables for the project

Q73: Creating___is at the very heart of modern marketing thinking and practice

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Answer: customer value and satisfaction

Q74: Creativity is at its zenith during the___stage of the project life cycle

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Answer: execution

Q75: Credit risk refers to the probability that the issuer of a bond will fail to pay some or all of the interest or principal

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Answer: Correct – True

Q76: Crediting sums realized by way of penalties under the competition act 2002, shall be Credited to the

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Answer: consolidated fund of India

Q77: Critical input to scope initiation is

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Answer: Project charter

Q78: Critical path analysis is used to determine

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Answer: All of these—s/b—All of these—a. the earliest activity start time b. the latest activity start time c. activity slack time

Q79: Critical path analysis should be done to avoid which one of the following threats

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Answer: Under-estimation of time requirements

Q80: Critics believe all of the following contribute to the charge that marketers cause prices to be higher than is justified EXCEPT

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Answer: high costs of product production

Q81: CRM allows an organization to accomplish all of the following except

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Answer: Complicate marketing and sales processes

Q82: CRM as a discipline that depends on people, process, information and___

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Answer: Technology

Q83: CRM is selling product or service by using

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Answer: Psychological inducement

Q84: Cross-cultural training organizations are not experts in the area of cross-cultural relationships and can provide training on many topics

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q85: Crowding out occurs when

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Answer: investment declines because a budget deficit makes interest rates rise

Q86: Crowding out occurs when investment declines because

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Answer: a budget deficit makes interest rates rise

Q87: CTS in cheque stands for

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Answer: Cheque truncation system

Q88: Cultural differences can affect your ability to send and receive messages

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Answer: True – Answer

Q89: Cultural differences will always be an obstacle to be overcome

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q90: Cultural diversity is

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Answer: the degree to which a population is made up of people from various national, ethnic, racial, and religious backgrounds

Q91: Cultural values would be part of which of the following factor in macro environment

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Answer: Social

Q92: CULTURE is a shared system of symbols, beliefs, attitudes, values, expectations, and norms for behaviour

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Answer: True – Answer

Q93: Cumulative probabilities are found by

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Answer: summing all the previous probabilities up to the current value of the variable

Q94: Curative (control )measure under IDRA deals with

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Answer: direct management by government

Q95: Current view holds that salespeople should be concerned with producing customer satisfaction and company profit. So whom do they generally serve

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Answer: A and C—a. They represent the company to customers. c. They represent the customer to the company

Q96: customer access to the Internet is high___

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Answer: Customer access to the Internet is low

Q97: Customer centrality means providing everything the customer needs and wants

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q98: Customer churn refers to___

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Answer: Customer defection

Q99: Customer complaints are helpful for organization because resolution of complaints leads to stronger relationship. Following are the benefits of customer complaints EXCEPT

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Answer: Create nuisance

Q100: Customer complaints should be viewed by the marketer as

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Answer: A source of important information and an opportunity to prove the firm’s commitment to service