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Q1: Among the basic functions of a project manager are scoping, planning, directing, estimating, scheduling, programming, and closing

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Answer: False – Answer

Q2: Among the guidelines of writing a system proposal are writing in active voice, avoiding sentences that are too complex, and conveying a single idea in each paragraph

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Answer: True – Answer

Q3: Among the social criticisms of marketing is high prices. The long-standing charge that greedy middlemen mark up prices beyond the value added by their services refers to which price-related criticism

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Answer: high costs of distribution

Q4: An abstract use cased is an excellent tool for reducing redundancy among use cases

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Answer: True – Answer

Q5: An activities has a optimistic time of 4 days, a most likely time of 7 days, and a pessimistic time 13 days. What is its expected time

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Answer: 7.5 days

Q6: An activitiy has a optimistic time of 4 days, a most likely time of 7 days, and a pessimistic time 13 days. What is its variance

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Answer: 2.25

Q7: An Activity has an Optimistic estimate of 1.0 days, pessimistic estimate of 1.6 days, most likely estimate of 1.3. days. What is the PERT Estimate for the task

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Answer: 1.3. days

Q8: An Activity has an Optimistic estimate of 10 days, pessimistic estimate of 16 days, most likely estimate of 13 days. Assuming a Normal Distribution, what is the probability that the task will be completed within 10 – 16 days

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Answer: 99.73 percent

Q9: An Activity has an Optimistic estimate of 10 days, pessimistic estimate of 16 days, most likely estimate of 13 days. If your company has a quality requirement of 6 sigma, what is the duration within which this task must be completed

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Answer: 7 days to 19 days

Q10: An activity has an optimistic time of 11 days, a most likely time of 15 days, and a pessimistic time of 23 days. What is its variance

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Answer: 4

Q11: An activity has an optimistic time of 15 days, a most likely time of 18 days, and a pessimistic time of 27 days. What is its expected time

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Answer: 19 days

Q12: An activity is probably ethical if

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Answer: it is legal

Q13: An activity that consumes no time or resources and shows only that a dependency exists between two activities is called

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Answer: A dummy activity

Q14: An ad hoc group that discusses variances to the baselines, a documented process to manage variances, and procedures to update documents are all part of

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Answer: Change control system

Q15: An advantage of a small firm in the innovation process

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Answer: Ability of an entrepreneur to act on new ideas or product development

Q16: An advantage of decentralized contracting is

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Answer: The project manager has more control

Q17: An advantage of recruitment from outside the company is

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Answer: that it brings in new experience and skills to the firm

Q18: An advantage of the indirect approach is that it gives you a chance to prove your points and gradually overcome your audience’s reservations

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Answer: True – Answer

Q19: An advantage of using computer programs for qualitative data is that they___

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Answer: Can reduce time required to analyze data (i.e., after the data are transcribed)b. Help in storing and organizing datac. Make many procedures available that are rarely done by hand due to time constraints—all of these

Q20: An advertisement copy must have___

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Answer: Description

Q21: An alternate key may serve as the primary key of an entity

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Answer: False – Answer

Q22: An alternative or research hypothesis is usually the hypothesis a researcher wants to prove

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Answer: Correct – True

Q23: An alternative to product line stretching is___- adding more items within the present range of the line. There are several reasons for doing this; some are to reach for extra profits, satisfy dealers, use excess capacity, and to plug holes to keep out competitors

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Answer: product line filling

Q24: An application program is a machine readable representation of what a hardware process is supposed to do

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Answer: False – Answer

Q25: An application system can be mapped into how many different layers

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Answer: None of these —A). oneB). twoC). threeD). four

Q26: An application used in an organization which runs on a managed server external to the company is best known as

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Answer: an application Service Provider solution

Q27: An applications portfolio analysis category where IS are of high current and high future significance to business performance is a

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Answer: strategic system

Q28: An applications portfolio analysis category where IS are of high current and lower future significance to business performance is a

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Answer: key operational system

Q29: An applications portfolio analysis category where IS are of low current and high future significance to business performance is a

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Answer: high potential system

Q30: An applications portfolio analysis category where IS are of low current and low future significance to business performance is a

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Answer: support system

Q31: An appropriate strategy to achieve timely, accurate, paperless information flow is

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Answer: Revision of organization processes supported by information systems

Q32: An appropriate strategy to maximize efficiency of promotions is

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Answer: Integrate this activity into all supply chain planning

Q33: An appropriate strategy to optimize for time and cost in the ordering process is

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Answer: Efficient replacement

Q34: An appropriate strategy to optimize the productivity of retail space and inventory is

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Answer: Efficient store assortments

Q35: An appropriate technique for the control of inventory in services is

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Answer: All of these—s/b—All of these—a) good personnel selection, training and discipline b) tight control of incoming shipments c) effective control of all goods leaving the facility

Q36: An article in the textbook suggests that one method to correct the higher education inefficiency is to

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Answer: have college students sell equity in themselves

Q37: An assignment problem

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Answer: will always have an integer solution

Q38: An attempt to develop an ongoing, expanding exchange relationship with a firm’s customers is called___

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Answer: relationship marketing

Q39: An attribute that consists of other attributes is called

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Answer: compound attribute

Q40: An attribute whose value can be calculated form other attributes is called

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Answer: derived attribute

Q41: An audience-centred approach is important but not paramount in communicating a message

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Answer: False – Answer

Q42: An automated teller machine (ATM) is an example of Electronic Terminal

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Answer: False – Answer

Q43: An awareness of one’s values and the organization’s values and culture are components of

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Answer: ethics

Q44: An effect size indicator is a statistical measure of the strength of a relationship

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Answer: Correct – True

Q45: An effective form of direct marketing today is using the 30-minute television advertising programs for a single product called___

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Answer: infomercials

Q46: An effective refusal in a negative message

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Answer: Can be implied rather than stated directly

Q47: An effectiveness metric for assessing e-business involves___

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Answer: Doing the right thing

Q48: An electronic component had a reliability of 0.90. Two of these components are arranged in series in a sub-assembly. The system reliability for the sub-assembly is

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Answer: 0.81As they are in series, System reliability = 0.9 * 0.9 = 0.81.

Q49: An employee for Acme, Inc., has been asked to carry out an assignment that she believes is wrong. This situation can be classified as

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Answer: a dilemma

Q50: An employee is separated from the organization by way of lay off when

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Answer: Employer could not employ the employee

Q51: An employee terminated due to Alcoholism, dishonesty or inefficiency is called as

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Answer: Discharge

Q52: An employees response to a moral or ethical issue depends in part on

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Answer: the structure and culture of the organization

Q53: An employer will most likely use a private employment agency in order to___

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Answer: fill a specific job opening quickly

Q54: An employer’s computerized recruitment system should include all of the following elements EXCEPT___

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Answer: hypertext transfer protocol to enable applicants to post their resumes in any format or font

Q55: An employer’s decision to deliver on-the-job training or Web-based training is most likely determined by which of the following

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Answer: budget considerations

Q56: An enterprise data model typically identifies only the most fundamental of entities

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Answer: True – Answer

Q57: An entity is in the second normal form if

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Answer: values of nonprimary key attributes are dependent on the full primary key

Q58: An entity whose instances may inherit common attributes from its entity supertype is called

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Answer: None of these —A). generalization entityB). non-specific entityC). recursive entityD). associative entity

Q59: An entrepreneur can utilize strategies including___

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Answer: All of these—a. A rent seeking strategies b. Growth strategies c. Quality strategy

Q60: An entrepreneur is___

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Answer: All of these—a. Professionalests and practice-oriented b. Provider of resources c. Risk takers d. Opportunist

Q61: An error of omission when a job description or specification fails to incorporate important aspects of the job required for success is called

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Answer: deficiency

Q62: An ethical infrastructure should contain

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Answer: a formalised code

Q63: An ethical issue is a problem, situation, or opportunity

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Answer: requiring an individual or organization to choose among several actions that must be evaluated as right or wrong, ethical or unethical

Q64: An event is a logical unit of work that must be completed as a whole

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Answer: True – Answer

Q65: An Example for C2C is___

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Answer: Ebay.com

Q66: An example of a close-ended question is “What have you done about smoothing out the intercultural clashes in your department?”

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Answer: False – Answer

Q67: An example of a leading question is, “Do you prefer we stay open in the evenings for your convenience?”

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Answer: True – Answer

Q68: An example of a project is

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Answer: Constructing a building or facility

Q69: An example of a project management system is

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Answer: Oracle

Q70: An Example of agent middle man

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Answer: broker

Q71: An example of an information to support operational management is

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Answer: Electronic Document management system

Q72: An example of an information to support strategic management is

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Answer: Business Intelligence system

Q73: An example of an information to support tactical management is

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Answer: Spreadsheet model of income projections

Q74: An example of an informative synopsis is “This report contains information about super-premium ice cream and its share of the market.”

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Answer: False – Answer

Q75: An example of certification of Trade marks

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Answer: ISI

Q76: An example of information to support strategic management is___

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Answer: Business intelligence system

Q77: An example of information to support tactical management is

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Answer: Spreadsheet model of income projections

Q78: An example of merchant middlemen

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Answer: commission agent

Q79: An example of service variability is that within a given Marriot hotel, one registration-desk employee may be cheerful and efficient, whereas another may be unpleasant and slow

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Answer: Correct – True

Q80: An executive summary is a prose table of contents that outlines the main points of a report

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Answer: False – Answer

Q81: An expansionist capacity strategy is NOT indicated when

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Answer: Expansion will lead to economies of scale

Q82: An experienced employee offering guidance and support to a junior employee so that the later learns and advances in the organization is called

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Answer: Coaching

Q83: An expert forecasting technique used in environmental scanning where individual ideas, round robin listing and ranking occurs is known as___

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Answer: Nominal Group Technique

Q84: An extraneous variable that systematically varies with the independent variable and also influences the dependent variable is known as a___

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Answer: Confounding variableb. Third variable—Both a and b are correct

Q85: An identification of creativity is based on___

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Answer: All of these—a. Advance thinking b. Re-explanation c. Power of co-ordination d. Originality

Q86: An important difference between a perfectly competitive firm and a monopolist is that

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Answer: The perfectly competitive firm faces a horizontal demand curve and the monopolist faces a downward-sloping demand curve

Q87: An in-house temporary employee is a highly skilled worker, such as an engineer or software designer, who is supplied for long-term projects under contract from an outside technical services firm

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q88: An increase in price from 25 paisa to 30 paisa leads to an increase in the quantity supplied from 40 units to 44 units. The price elasticity of supply is

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Answer: 0.5

Q89: An increase in the budget deficit shifts the demand for loanable funds to the right

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q90: An increase in the budget deficit would cause a

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Answer: shortage of loanable funds at the original interest rate, which would lead to rising interest rates

Q91: An increase in the demand for loanable funds increases the equilibrium interest rate and decreases the equilibrium level of saving

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q92: An increase in the demand for loanable funds increases the equilibrium interest rate and increases the equilibrium level of saving

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Answer: Correct – True

Q93: An increase in the government budget deficit causes national saving to___, the interest rate to___, and investment to___

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Answer: decrease, increases, decreases

Q94: An increase in the government’s budget deficit means

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Answer: public saving is less than USD0 and decreasing

Q95: An increase in the government’s budget surplus means

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Answer: public saving is greater than USD0 and increasing

Q96: An increase in the quantity of loanable funds traded means that

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Answer: firms are borrowing more and investment increases

Q97: An increasing number of retailers and wholesalers have created their own brands -such as Wal-Mart offers Sam’s Choice beverages and food products. This is called co-branding

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q98: An Indian company owns a fast-food store in Sri lanka. The value of the goods and services produced in the store are Included

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Answer: In Sri lanka’s GDP, but not in India’s GDP

Q99: An individual who has no prior business ownership experience as a business founder, inheritor of a business, or a purchaser of the business is called a___entrepreneur

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Answer: Novice

Q100: An individual who has prior business ownership experience is called a___entrepreneur

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Answer: Habitual