Multiple choice question for engineering
1. Which stone is used for buildings situated in industrial towns?
a) Marble slab
b) Compact sandstone
Answer: b [Reason:] Granite and compact sandstone are generally used for buildings situated in
industrial towns. Marble slab and slate are used for electrical switch boards and gneiss is used for heavy engineering works.
2. Rubble masonry is sub-divided into:
Answer: c [Reason:] Rubble masonry uses stones of irregular size. The sub groups are coursed, uncoursed, random rubble, dry rubble, polygonal and flint rubble.
3. The figure below represents:
a) Coursed rubble masonry I
b) Coursed rubble masonry II
c) Coursed rubble masonry III
d) Coursed rubble masonry IV
Answer: b [Reason:] In type I, stones of same height are to be used and courses are of same height. In type III, stones are to be of different height, course height need not be equal. In type II, as the figure indicates, stones are of different height, course is of equal height.
4. In random rubble masonry sort I, face stones are:
a) Chisel dressed
b) Hammer dressed
c) Axe dressed
d) Plain dressed
Answer: a [Reason:] In random rubble masonry sort I, face stones are chisel dressed and thickness of mortar joints does not exceed 6mm.
5. Flints used in flint rubble masonry are:
a) Nodules of fly ash
b) Nodules of feldspar
c) Nodules of mica
d) Nodules of silica
Answer: d [Reason:] Flints are irregularly shaped nodules of silica. The width and thickness varies from 80-15cm and length from 15-30cm.
6. Which of the below joints is used for masonry in arches?
Answer: c [Reason:] The rebated joints involves a double L shape ( |—-| )of 2 stone blocks. It ensures proper grip and is used in arches, stones laid on slopes.
7. Which ratio of cement mortar is used for stone masonry?
Answer: b [Reason:] Generally, 1:3 is the ratio used for cement mortar to be used in stone masonry. 15% of cement can be replaced by lime to improve workability.
8. Ashlar masonry uses:
a) Dimension stones
b) Polygonal stones
c) Quarry dressed stones
d) Square stones
Answer: a [Reason:] Ashlar masonry uses dressed and faced stones. These are cut into proper dimensions and called dimension stones. It can be of any size, shape as per requirements.
9. __________ masonry occupies an intermediate position between rubble masonry and ashlar
a) Rubble block in course
b) Ashlar rubble in course
c) Ashlar block in course
d) Rubble ashlar in course
Answer: c [Reason:] The stones are hammer dressed and thickness of mortar joints does not exceed 6mm. Depth of course may vary from 20-30cm. It is used for heavy engineering works.
10. Great skill and skilled labour is required for laying:
a) Coursed rubble masonry
b) Ashlar fine masonry
c) Ashlar chamfered masonry
d) Dry rubble masonry
Answer: d [Reason:] In dry rubble masonry, mortar is not used. Great skill is required to arrange different sized and shaped stones in such a way that they don’t roll down or fall down after a while.
11. Which of the below is not to be followed for stone masonry construction?
a) Header stones be dumb-bell shaped
b) Properly cured for 2-3 weeks
c) Construction to be raised uniformly
d) Wetted stones to be used
Answer: a [Reason:] The header and bond stones in stone masonry are not to be of dumb-bell shape. IS code 1597 gives the general guidelines to be followed by laying the stone in stone masonry.
1. Carbon footprint can be measured by:
a) Carbon dating
c) Carbon accounting
Answer: c [Reason:] Carbon footprint is the total set of greenhouse gas emissions caused by an individual, event, organisation or product. It is expressed as carbon dioxide equivalent. It can be measured by assessment of GHG (greenhouse gas) levels or activities like carbon accounting.
2. How many types of ecological pyramids are there?
Answer: a [Reason:] Ecological pyramid is a graphical representation used to show bio productivity at each trophic level. The three types are pyramid of energy, pyramid of numbers and pyramid of biomass.
3. A legally binding agreement between 2 or more nation states relating to environment is:
Answer: d [Reason:] MEA stand for Multilateral Environmental Agreement. When it is between 2 nation states, it is BEA – Bilateral Environmental Agreement. These are predominantly produced by United Nations.
4. _________ is a programme run by UN related to sustainable development.
a) GHG indicator
b) Agenda 21
Answer: b [Reason:] Agenda 21 is a comprehensive blueprint of action to be taken globally, nationally and locally by governments of member nations of UN and those major groups in every area in which humans impact on the environment.
5. For a gold LEED certification, how many points are required?
Answer: b [Reason:] LEED is Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design. It has four levels – certified (40-49 points), silver (50-59), gold (60-79) and platinum (80-110 points).
6. Which of the below green building in India has received a platinum LEED certification?
a) Dabur India, Chandigarh
b) Logix Cyber Park, UP
c) Unitech Commercial Tower, Chandigarh
d) Suzlon One Earth, Pune
Answer: d [Reason:] This building can accommodate 2300 people, has used low energy materials, thus reducing carbon footprint. 90% of occupied space has access to natural daylight.
7. ________ is the conventional source for hydel power.
a) Tidal wave
Answer: c [Reason:] Hydel power is obtained from high velocity of running water. It is abundantly present. It is used for longer period of time. It is an exceptional case of conventional energy.
8. The first academic publication about ecological footprints was in:
Answer: a [Reason:] William Rees published the first ecological footprint in 1992. The concept and calculation was developed as the PhD dissertation of Mathis Wackernagel under Rees’ supervision from 1990-1994.
9. Which of the below is a global scale environmental issue?
b) Regional ozone
c) Climate change
Answer: c [Reason:] These are three scales of environmental issues – local, regional and global. Climate change, global warming, stratospheric ozone less, etc. are all issues at global level.
10. Carbon can be stored in organic matter in the form of:
d) Bio carbon
Answer: a [Reason:] It is stored in the roots of trees and organic matter for decades in the form of biomass. The carbon from these are released into the atmosphere on decomposition.
11. The ‘Miracle Material’ that can turn CO2 into liquid fuel is:
Answer: c [Reason:] Graphene quantum dots can recycle waste CO2 to fuel. Scientist Pulickel Ajayan has shown the conversion of CO2 into ethylene and ethanol using electro catalysis in lab conditions.
1. Which of the below is a natural defect occurring in timber?
Answer: c [Reason:] The other options are those defects that occur after the felling of tree.
2. How many types of shakes are there?
Answer: d [Reason:] The 5 types of shakes are star, heart, cup, ring and radial shakes.
3. The figure below represents:
a) Twisted fibre
c) Wind cracks
Answer: d [Reason:] Upsets indicates wood fibres that are injured by crushing or compression. It is due to improper felling of trees.
4. __________ defects is indicated by red/yellow tinge in wood.
Answer: a [Reason:] Druxiness is indicated by white spots. Callus is soft tissue that covers wound of tree. Burls are swelling on the surface of tree.
5. A crack which separates wood fibres is called:
Answer: b [Reason:] Check is crack that does not extend from one end to another. A check that extends from one end to other is called split.
6. Diagonal grain is a defect formed due to improper:
Answer: a [Reason:] Diagonal grain is caused due to improper sawing of timber. It is indicated by diagonal marks on straight grained surface of timber.
7. Which of the following is not a cause of decay of timber?
a) Lack of ventilation
b) Alternate dry and wet conditions
c) Absence of moisture
d) Moisture accompanied by heat
Answer: c [Reason:] Presence of moisture and sap accelerate the decay of timber.
8. What causes dry rot in timber?
c) White ants
Answer: d [Reason:] A fungi called Meruliam Lechrymans causes the dry rot. It reduces wood to fine powdery substance. It first sets in the sap wood and advances. It makes timber brittle, cohesion is lost and finally powdered.
9. A good preservative should:
a) Be poisonous
b) Be unaffected by heat and moisture
c) Have pleasant odour
d) Have white colour
Answer: b [Reason:] A good preservative should be poisonous to fungi, insects, etc. It should odourless and colourless.
10. Which of the below preservative, with their examples correctly match?
a) Type 1 – DDT
b) Type 2 – Coal
c) Type 3 – Boric acid
d) Type 4 – Benzene
Answer: c [Reason:] There are only 3 types of preservative as per IS 401. Type 1 is oil type and coal, tar are examples of it. Type 2 is organic solvent type with benzene, DDT as examples. Type 3 is water borne type and boric acid, zinc chloride are examples of it.
11. Ascue is a:
a) Defect by insects
c) Natural defect
d) Type of marine borer
Answer: b [Reason:] Ascue – copper chrome arsenic composition, is a type 3 preservative developed by Forest Research Institute. It is available in powdered form. Ascue solution is prepared by mixing 6 parts powder to 100 parts water, by weight.
12. Which method of application of preservative is suitable for moist timber?
a) Pressure application
b) Brushing and spraying
d) Hot and cold tank treatment
Answer: a [Reason:] Timber is placed in air tight cylinder, vacuum is created and maintained till air bubbles are destroyed. Preservative is then pumped into the air tight cylinder.
13. Which of the following makes the timber look sound but might fail it without pre-warning?
a) Marine borers
c) White ants
Answer: c [Reason:] Beetles make thousands of deep small holes while the white ants or termites develop tunnels inside the timber in various directions.
14. The defect indicated by curvature formed in transverse direction is:
Answer: d [Reason:] Bow is curvature in direction of length. Spring is curvature in its own plane. Twist occurs when timber plank has spirally distorted along its length.
1. In absorption test on brick, how many hours it has to be soaked in cold water?
a) 19 hours
b) 5 hours
c) 6 hours
d) 24 hours
Answer: d [Reason:] The sample brick is oven dried, cooled and then soaked in water at room temperature for 24 hours.
2. What is the loading rate used in compressive strength test?
a) 14 N/mm2 per hour
b) 14 N/mm2 per minute
c) 20 N/mm2 per minute
d) 40 N/mm2 per hour
Answer: b [Reason:] As per IS codes, the loading on brick specimen in a CTM should be uniform at rate of 14 N/mm2 per minute.
3. How is hardness of brick tested?
a) Using finger nail
b) Using hardness apparatus
c) Using hammer
d) Using chisel
Answer: a [Reason:] Brick is scratched using finger nail. If there are no visible scratches made on the brick surface, it is said to be sufficiently hard.
4. What is the maximum permissible tolerance for length and width respectively?
a) ± 3mm and ± 6mm
b) ± 6mm and ± 3mm
c) ± 3cm and ± 6cm
d) ± 6cm and ± 3cm
Answer: b [Reason:] The standard size of brick is length – 190mm and width – 90mm. When manufactured, size variations may occur by expansion or contraction while drying and burning process. Permissible tolerance is ± 6mm for length and ± 3mm for width and height.
5. What should be observed ideally when two bricks are struck together?
a) Dull sound
b) Sides shatter
c) Clear ringing sound
d) Brick breaks
Answer: c [Reason:] It is a test for soundness of brick. A sound brick should not break. It should produce a clear ringing sound. A dull sound indicates an unsound brick.
6. End of a brick is placed in glass dish containing water and it is tested for efflorescence after it is absorbed or evaporated.
Answer: b [Reason:] After first evaporation, sample is dried. Then again same procedure is repeated. It is after second evaporation, brick is tested for efflorescence.
7. When observed efflorescence is more than 10% but less than 50% of exposed area, it is:
a) Moderate efflorescence
b) Serious efflorescence
c) Heavy efflorescence
d) Light efflorescence
Answer: a [Reason:] For slight efflorescence, it should not cover more than 10% of exposed surface and for heavy efflorescence, area should be more than 50%.
8. How is structure of brick tested?
a) Powdered and tested
b) Immersed in water and dried.
c) Rubbed against another brick
d) Broken and examined
Answer: d [Reason:] A brick is broken to expose the surface. It should be uniform, compact, free from voids.
9. Creep test is carried out in accordance with:
a) IS 1528
b) IS 5688
c) IS 3495
d) IS 4568
Answer: a [Reason:] Creep test is done to check percent of shrinkage of refractory test piece under constant load. The specifications for this test are given in IS 1528.
10. What does M1 indicate in the formula:
% water absorption = M2 – M1 ⁄M2 x 100
a) Oven dried mass of brick
b) Oven dried and cooled mass of brick
c) Mass of water absorbed brick
d) Mass of water absorbed and dried brick
Answer: b [Reason:] Oven dried samples is allowed to cool down and its mass is taken as M1. Sample is immersed in water for 24 hours, excess water is wiped off and then its mass is taken as M2.
1. Unburnt bricks are also called:
a) Dry bricks
b) Clayey bricks
c) Kucha bricks
d) Clamp bricks
Answer: c [Reason:] Unburnt bricks are the one dried in the sun, after moulding. They are kept for long time until they dry. Sometimes due to large number of bricks, limited time, improper workman skills, the bricks are not completely dried and hence are called Kucha bricks.
2. Burnt bricks can be further classified into how many types?
Answer: b [Reason:] There can be 4 sub-divisions of burnt bricks. They are first class, second class, third class and kiln rejected bricks.
3. First class bricks are used for:
a) Brick ballast in R.C.C
b) Boundary walls
c) Low height walls
Answer: d [Reason:] First class bricks are strong, durable and have good appearance. These are used for important work, load bearing works. Pavements, flooring, load bearing wall are some places of use.
4. The minimum crushing strength of third class brick is:
a) 3.5 N/mm2
b) 7 N/mm2
c) 10 N/mm2
d) 20 N/mm2
Answer: a [Reason:] As per IS codes, the minimum crushing strength of first class brick is 10.5 N/mm2, second class is 7 N/mm2 and third class is 3.5 N/mm2.
5. Which of the following is not a feature of second class bricks?
a) Have small irregularities
b) Water absorption is between 20-25%
c) Rectangular in shape
d) Free from cracks
Answer: b [Reason:] The water absorption of second class bricks is less than 22%. 20-25% is the range of water absorption of third class bricks.
6. Pilas are under burnt bricks.
Answer: a [Reason:] Pilas are under burnt or half burnt bricks with yellow colour. They can be used as surkhi. Zhamas are over burnt bricks and are kiln waste. Picked Zhamas can be used in road work.
7. What is the speciality of FALG bricks?
a) Are composed of agricultural waste
b) Round in shape
c) Economic alternative to clay bricks
d) Widely used in masonry work
Answer: c [Reason:] FALG bricks are composed of flyash, lime and gypsum. It utilises the waste from thermal power plants and hence it is economic alternative to clay bricks.
8. Which of the following bricks types use least amount of clay?
a) Hollow bricks
b) Coping bricks
c) Channel bricks
d) Perforated bricks
Answer: d [Reason:] Perforated bricks contain cylindrical holes throughout their thickness. These are light in weight. They use very little amount of clay.
9. Which of the following type of bricks is made for jambs of doors and windows?
a) Cant bricks
b) Arch bricks
c) Lintel bricks
d) Hinged bricks
Answer: a [Reason:] Purpose-made bricks are those made to achieve specific purpose. They can be splay or Cant, Arch, Ornamental, etc. They are costly but help in quick construction.
10. Fire clay bricks are made by burning them at high temperatures in closed chamber.
Answer: b [Reason:] Fire clay bricks are manufactured by using fire clay. It is extracted by mining at great depths. It is capable of withstanding high temperatures of 17750C.
11. The figure below represents:
a) Cownose brick
b) Paving brick
c) Curved sector brick
d) Bullnose brick
Answer: d [Reason:] Bullnose brick is a brick moulded with rounded angle. It is used for a rounded quoin (connection formed when wall takes a turn).
12. What is the problem with using flyash bricks?
d) Not sound proof
Answer: c [Reason:] When they come in contact with moisture, chemical reaction occurs and they tend to expand.