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# Multiple choice question for engineering

## Set 1

1. Most soils have particle density of about:
a) 2.6 g/cc
b) 2.9 g/cc
c) 2.5 g/cc
d) 2.7 g/cc

Answer: a [Reason:] Particle density is mass per unit volume of soil particles. It is expressed in g/cc and most soils have 2.6 g/cc as particle density.

2. Soil exists in how many states?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

Answer: d [Reason:] Soil can exist in four states based on amount of water content. They are liquid, plastic, semi solid and solid state. Water content decreases with each state.

3. In oven drying method for determination of water content, temperature maintained is:
a) 100-105oC
b) 150-160oC
c) 105-110oC
d) 110-120oC

Answer: c [Reason:] An optimum and constant temperature of 105-110oC is to be maintained in the oven. The specimen is kept for about 24 hours to ensure proper drying.

4. A soil generally consists of combination of __________ separates.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

Answer: b [Reason:] The mineral components of soil are termed as separates. These are three of them – clay, silt and sand. Various soils are designated based on proportion of separates.

5. Loose soil has relative density within range of:
a) 60-85
b) 85-100
c) 10-35
d) 35-60

Answer: c [Reason:] Relative density is used to express relative compactness of cohesionless soil. It ranges from <10 to 100 (very loose to very dense). Loose soil has relative density between 10 and 35.

6. _________ apparatus is used to test liquid limit of a soil.
a) Mohr
b) Casagrande
c) Otto
d) Terzaghi

Answer: b [Reason:] The water content at which soil changes from liquid to plastic state is liquid limit. Casagrande apparatus consists of rubber base and brass cup. Sample is filled in cup, subjected to blows by rotating handle at 2 revolutions per second. Water content corresponding to 25 blows is the liquid limit.

7. How many tests in lab can be performed to get permeability of soil?
a) 5
b) 4
c) 3
d) 2

Answer: d [Reason:] The two tests are constant head permeability test and variable head permeability test. The constant head permeability test is done for highly permeable soil and the other one for fine grained soil.

8. Soil with higher Ic (consistency index) is a better foundation material.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a [Reason:] If two soils are to be compared, based on Ic, then higher value one is better foundation material. If Ic < 0, natural water content < liquid limit and soil would behave like liquid. This is not a desired property for foundation material.

9. How many types of pores are present in a soil mass?
a) 6
b) 3
c) 5
d) 4

Answer: c [Reason:] The five types are macropore (too large, >75μm), mesopore (30-75μm), micropore (5-30μm), ultramicropore (0.1-30μm) and cryptopore (smallest, < 0.1 μm).

10. How many grades of soil are there?
a) 5
b) 4
c) 7
d) 6

Answer: b [Reason:] Based on degree of distinctness of peds (natural aggregates of soil particles), there are 4 grades of soil. They are structureless, weak, moderate and strong.

## Set 2

1. How many major sources of solid waste are there based on their origin?
a) 10
b) 5
c) 9
d) 6

Answer: c [Reason:] There are broadly 9 sources of solid waste. They are residential, industrial, commercial, institutional, construction & demolition areas, municipal services, treatment plants, agriculture and biomedical.

2. Which of the below is not an idea behind solid waste management?
a) Control of waste generation
b) Storage and collection
c) Disposal
d) Stop waste generation

Answer: d [Reason:] The generation of solid waste cannot be stopped. The idea behind solid waste management is to reduce and eliminate the adverse effects of these on the environment and human health.

3. The number of functional components of solid waste management are:
a) 5
b) 3
c) 6
d) 4

Answer: c [Reason:] The six functional components in order are waste generation (identification of waste), onsite handling & storage (at site of waste), waste collection (collecting from different sources), waste transfer (local to regional site), waste processing (sorting of reusable/recyclable) and disposal (at landfills/waste to energy).

4. The term ISWM refers to:
a) International Solid Waste Management
b) Integrated Solid Waste Management
c) Integrated Solid Waste Machine
d) International Solid Waste Mechanism

Answer: b [Reason:] It stands for Integrated Solid Waste Management. It refers to the selection and use of appropriate techniques for the disposal of solid waste.

5. Under which rule of Government, guidelines for solid waste management are followed today?
a) Municipal Solid Waste Rules, 2000
b) Municipal Solid Waste Rules, 2016
c) Solid Waste Rules, 2000
d) Solid Waste Rules, 2016

Answer: d [Reason:] At present, we have to follow the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016. This new rule was notified on 8th April 2016 and it supersedes the Municipal Solid Waste Rules, 2000. This new sets of rules have been extended to all Indian local bodies.

6. The average composition of Municipal solid waste is:
a) 41% organic, 40% inert & 19% recyclable
b) 20% organic, 60% inert & 20% recyclable
c) 30% organic, 20% inert & 50% recyclable
d) 19% organic, 41% inert & 40% recyclable

Answer: a [Reason:] The bulk of the organic waste arrives from households and agriculture. The inert waste is generated from construction sites, demolitions, public places, etc.

7. There are __________ ways to treat waste thermally.
a) 5
b) 3
c) 2
d) 6

Answer: b [Reason:] The process which use heat to treat the waste are referred to as thermal treatment. These include incineration (combustion of waste & recover energy for electricity/heating), pyrolysis (decomposition of organic waste with low oxygen and high temperature), and open burning (environmentally harmful and mostly practical).

8. How many types of landfills are there?
a) 3
b) 2
c) 5
d) 4

Answer: a [Reason:] They are sanitary landfills, controlled dumps and bioreactor landfills. Sanitary landfills are the most common and are situated where the land features aid in decomposition. Controlled dumps are well planned sites and bioreactor landfills use superior microbiological process for decomposition.

9. Bio-medical waste can be effectively managed by thermal process.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a [Reason:] The thermal process uses heat in varying temperatures to disinfect the pathogens present. Autoclave & microwave process uses low heat whereas incinerator and hydroclaring uses high heat to render the waste pathogen free.

10. The WHO has classified the bio-medical waste into ___________ categories.
a) 5
b) 4
c) 3
d) 2

Answer: b [Reason:] The WHO has classified these into 4 categories- infectious (waste from surgeries and any material containing pathogens), pathological (tissues/organs/drugs, etc which are not required), radioactive (contaminated with radioactive substance) and others (waste from hospital housekeeping/kitchen).

11. Which gas produced in open dumps from decomposition of biodegradable waste?
a) Ethane
b) Methane
c) Propene
d) Ethene

Answer: b [Reason:] Methane is released by the decomposition under anaerobic conditions. This can cause fires and explosions and promote global warming too.

## Set 3

1. What is sand composed of?
a) Silica
b) Silicon
c) Silicon oxide
d) Quartz

Answer: a [Reason:] Sand is composed of small grains of silica (SiO2). It’s also called silicon dioxide.

2. Which of the following sand type is excellent for use in mortar and concrete work?
a) Sea sand
b) Clayey sand
c) Pit sand
d) River sand

Answer: c [Reason:] Pit sand doesn’t contain any salts and has sharp, angular grains. These are the desired properties for a sand to be used for mortar and concrete.

3. At what depth should pit sand be excavated from?
a) 1 – 2 m from bed of water body
b) 1 – 2 m from ground surface
c) 1 – 2 cm from bed of water body
d) 1 – 2 cm from ground surface

Answer: b [Reason:] Pit sand is found in Earth in deposits. It is obtained by forming pits in the soil. At a depth of 1 – 2 m from ground surface, angular grained pit sand is obtained.

4. Which IS code gives the grading of sand?
a) IS 456
b) IS 383
c) IS 2368
d) IS 1542

Answer: b [Reason:] IS code 383-1970 gives the classification of sand based on the grading. There are 4 grading zones. For each sieve size, there is a specific % of particle passing through that sieve, denoted in the respective zone.

5. What type of grains constitute river sand?
a) Angular
b) Flaky
c) Irregular
d) Rounded

Answer: d [Reason:] River sand is constituted of fine round grains. These are the result of mutual attrition under the effect of water current. It is naturally occurring, clean and mostly white in colour.

6. Sand is a fine grained component in soil.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b [Reason:] Sand size lies in the range 4.75 mm to 75 microns. A fine grained component of a soil has size less than 75 microns.

7. How many classifications are there for sand based on the grain size distribution?
a) 3
b) 2
c) 5
d) 4

Answer: a [Reason:] There are three types of sands based on grain size distribution. They are fine (passes through 1.5875 mm sieve), coarse (passes through 3.175 mm sieve) and gravelly sand (passes through 7.62 mm sieve).

8. Fine sand is generally used for which of the following works?
a) Masonry
b) Concrete structures
c) Plastering
d) Grinding and polishing

Answer: c [Reason:] Plastering is the act of applying a layer of plaster over a wall. It gives the wall a smooth and decorative appearance. Hence, for achieving the smoothness, fine grained sand is employed.

9. How is M-sand produced?
a) Crushing bricks
b) Quarrying
c) Reusing the debris of demolished building
d) Crushing granite stones

Answer: d [Reason:] M-sand stands for Manufactured sand and contains cubical grains with grounded edges. These are the perfect replacement for sand to be used in construction works.

10. Which one of the following is not an advantage of using M-sand?
a) Cost effective
b) Available in single size
c) Dust and impurity free
d) Can be obtained from hard rock

Answer: b [Reason:] M-sand is obtained by crushing specific hard rock and since its manufactured in factories, any size can be manufactured depending on the need.

## Set 4

1. Stones are obtained from rocks that are made up of:
a) Ores
b) Minerals
c) Chemical compounds
d) Crystals

Answer: b [Reason:] Rocks are made up of minerals. They can be monomineralic (single mineral) or polymineralic (more than one mineral).

2. Which one of the following is not a classification of stones?
a) Physical Classification
b) Mineralogical Classification
c) Chemical Classification
d) Practical Classification

Answer: b [Reason:] The classifications of stones are physical (based on structure), chemical (based on chemical composition), practical (based on usage) and geological (based on mode of origin). Mineralogical classification is not a means of classifying stones in general. It’s called chemical classification.

3. The hot molten material occurring naturally below the surface of the Earth is called:
a) Lava
b) Slag
c) Magma
d) Tuff

Answer: c [Reason:] Hot molten material is called Lava when it erupts from a volcano and reaches the surface. Slag is waste material from smelting of ore. Tuff is a porous rock formed by consolidation of volcanic ash.

4. At what depth and rate is a hypabyssal rock formed?
a) Slow cooling of magma at considerable depth
b) Quick cooling of magma at a shallow depth
c) Rapid cooling of magma at Earth’s surface
d) Rapid cooling of magma at a shallow depth

Answer: b [Reason:] Plutonic rocks are formed by slow cooling of magma at considerable depth. Volcanic rocks are formed near surface of Earth by rapid cooling of magma. Hypabyssal rocks are formed at quick rate of cooling of magma at considerably shallow depths.

5. What is a sedimentary deposit?
a) Weathered product remains at site
b) Weathered product carried away in solution
c) Weathered product gets carried away agents
d) Insoluble weathered product is carried away in suspension

Answer: d [Reason:] Option a is called residual deposit. Option b is chemical deposit and option c is organic deposit.

6. Which factor disturbs the equilibrium of rocks, commencing metamorphism?
a) Increase in temperature
b) Decrease in temperature and pressure
c) Increase in temperature and pressure
d) Decrease in pressure

Answer: c [Reason:] Rocks are stable at temperature below 200°C and at the pressure existing. Any increase in above two factors can initiate the process of metamorphism. One factor alone is not sufficient to start metamorphism.

7. Which of the following is not a metamorphic change?
a) Calcite to schist
b) Limestone to marble
c) Shale to slate
d) Granite to gneisses

Answer: a [Reason:] Calcite is a carbonate mineral whereas schist is a metamorphic rock formed by metamorphosis of mudstone/shale to higher degree than slate.

8. Which of the following rocks are hard and durable?
a) Argillaceous rocks
b) Siliceous rocks
c) Calcareous rocks
d) Carbonaceous rocks

Answer: b [Reason:] Silica predominates in siliceous rock and is less affected by weathering and hence are hard and durable compared to argillaceous (clay), calcareous (calcium carbonate) or carbonaceous (carbon).

9. Foliated structure is very common in case of:
a) Sedimentary rocks
b) Plutonic rocks
c) Igneous rocks
d) Metamorphic rocks

Answer: d [Reason:] Foliated rocks can split up into layers along a definite direction only. Sedimentary rocks are generally stratified and igneous rocks are unstratified.

10. Granite is a type of:
a) Plutonic rock
b) Metamorphic rock
c) Hypabyssal rock
d) Volcanic rock

Answer: a [Reason:] Granite is formed at slow rate of cooling of magma at considerable depths and so is a type of plutonic rock.

## Set 5

1. The vertical portion between each tread on stair is called:
a) Going
b) Nosing
c) Winder
d) Riser

Answer: d [Reason:] Tread is the place where we step on. It is the horizontal portion. The vertical distance between consecutive treads is called the riser. It may or may not be present (open stair effect).

2. The figure below represents a:

a) Dog-legged stairs
b) Turning stairs
c) Straight stairs
d) Well stairs

Answer: a [Reason:] It is the most common stairs in schools, houses, other buildings. The flights are at right angles.

3. Baluster in a stair is the _________ member supporting _________
a) Horizontal, handrail
b) Vertical, landing
c) Vertical, handrail
d) Horizontal, landing

Answer: c [Reason:] The baluster is usually wooden or metallic. It is a vertical member provided at specific intervals and is used to support the handrail.

4. How many types of stairs are there based on material?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 8
d) 6

Answer: b [Reason:] The five materials used in stairs are stone, metal, wood, R.C.C. and brick.

5. Speed of an escalator is usually:
a) 10-20m/min
b) 30-45m/min
c) 40-50m/min
d) 25-30m/min

Answer: d [Reason:] Escalators are electronically moving stairs. They can carry heavy traffic of people. The speed is kept at a minimal of 25-30m/min, so that people of all age groups can access it.

6. The space housing the stairs is called:
a) Staircase
b) Stair room
d) Stair space

Answer: a [Reason:] Staircase is also used to refer to the stairs, handrail, balusters, other structures as a whole. The space housing and all these are also called staircase.

7. Which IS code gives details about wooden stairs?
a) IS 2634
b) IS 2643
c) IS 1634
d) IS 1643

Answer: c [Reason:] IS 1634 gives the code of practice for the design and construction of wooden stairs for houses.

8. __________ stairs are a variation of L shaped stairs.
a) Winder
b) Spiral
c) Half turn
d) Switch back

Answer: a [Reason:] L shaped stairs have a bend, at 90o usually. The bend is achieved by adding a flat landing at the bend transition point. In winder stairs, instead of a flat landing, triangle steps are provided.

9. The decorative cap to the top of a newel post is called:
a) Finial
b) Fillet
c) Easing
d) Apron

Answer: a [Reason:] Newel post is a large baluster used to anchor the handrail. It is usually given a decorative cap to hold on to and is called a Finial.

10. How many types of stone stairs are used?
a) 2
b) 5
c) 4
d) 3