QN1. Risks will be identified during which risk management process(es)?
a) Quantitative risk analysis and risk identification
b) Risk identification and risk monitoring and control
c) Qualitative risk analysis and risk monitoring and control
d) Risk identification
e) None of the above.
Answer: d) Risk identificationAnswer
QN2. Who is ultimately responsible for quality management on the project?
a) Project engineer
b) Project manager
c) Quality manager
d) Team member
Answer: b) Project managerAnswer
QN3. A project manager has just been assigned to a new project and has been given the
preliminary project scope statement and the project charter. The first thing the project
manager must do is:
a) Create a project scope statement.
b) Confirm that all the stakeholders have had input into the scope.
c) Analyze project risk.
d) Begin work on a project management plan.
Answer: d) Begin work on a project management plan.Answer
QN4. You are taking over a project during the planning process group and discover that six individuals have signed the project charter. Which of the following should most concern you?
a) Who will be a member of the change control board
b) Spending more time on configuration management
c) Getting a single project sponsor
d) Determining the reporting structure
e) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: d) Determining the reporting structureAnswer
QN5. A project manager is employed by a construction company and is responsible for the furnishing of the completed building. One of the first things that the project manager for this project should do is to write a:
a) Work breakdown structure.
b) Budget baseline.
c) Project charter.
d) Project plan.
Answer: c) Project charter.Answer
QN6. All of the following are characteristics of a project EXCEPT:
a) Temporary
b) Definite beginning and end
c) Interrelated activities
d) Repeats itself every month
Answer: d) Repeats itself every monthAnswer
QN7. The equivalent of cost reimbursable contracts is frequently termed:
a) Back charge contracts.
b) Fixed price contracts.
c) Progress payment contracts.
d) Cost plus contracts.
Answer: d) Cost plus contracts.Answer
QN8. A buyer extends a formal invitation that contains a scope of work that seeks a response that will describe the methodology and results that will be provided to the buyer. This is called:
a) Invitation to bid.
b) Request for information.
c) Request for proposal.
d) Request for bid.
Answer: c) Request for proposal.Answer
QN9. A project manager must have some work done by an outside contractor. This work has a great deal of risk associated with it, and it has become very difficult to find a contractor willing to take on the job. Which of the following types of contract would offer the greatest incentive to the contractor?
a) Cost plus percentage of cost as an award fee
b) Cost plus fixed fee
c) Cost plus incentive fee
d) Firm fixed price.
Answer: c) Cost plus incentive feeAnswer
QN10. The project management process groups are:
a) Initiating, planning, expediting, and control.
b) Plan, organize, develop, and control.
c) Plan, do, observe, commit.
d) Initiating, planning, executing, controlling, and closeout.
Answer: d) Initiating, planning, executing, controlling, and closeout.Answer
QN11. In which project management process group is the detailed project budget created?
a) Initiating
b) Before the project management process
c) Planning
d) Executing
Answer: b) Before the project management processAnswer
QN12. Contract closure is different from administrative closure in that contract closure:
a) Occurs before administrative closure.
b) Is the only one to involve the customer?
c) Includes the return of property.
d) May be done more than once for each contract.
Answer: a) Occurs before administrative closure.Answer
QN13. During the full life cycle of the project, a plot of the project’s expected expenditures will usually follow a characteristic..S.. shape. This indicates that:
a) There is a cyclic nature to all projects.
b) Problems will always occur in the execution phase.
c) There are high expenditures during closeout.
d) The bulk of the project budget will be spent in the execution phase.
Answer: d) The bulk of the project budget will be spent in the execution phase.Answer
QN14. What conflict resolution technique is a project manager using when he says, “I cannot deal with this issue now!”
a) Problem solving
b) Forcing
c) Withdrawal
d) Compromising
Answer: c) WithdrawalAnswer
QN15. A group of related projects that are managed in a coordinated way that usually include an element of ongoing activity is called a:
a) Major project.
b) Project office.
c) Program.
d) Group of projects.
Answer: a) Major project.Answer
QN16. To control the schedule, a project manager is reanalyzing the project to predict project duration. She does this by analyzing the sequence of activities with the least amount of scheduling flexibility. What technique is she using?
a) Critical path method
b) Flowchart
c) Precedence diagramming
d) Work breakdown structure
e) Both (a) and (b).
Answer: a) Critical path methodAnswer
QN17. A project manager has just been assigned to a project. The document that recognizes the existence of the project is called:
a) The statement of work.
b) The project assignment.
c) The project charter.
d) The product description.
Answer: c) The project charter.Answer
QN18. A manager that manages a group of related projects is called a:
a) Project manager.
b) Project expediter.
c) Program coordinator.
d) Program manager.
Answer: a) Project manager.Answer
QN19. If project A has a net present value (NPV) of Rs 30,000 and project B has an NPV of Rs 50,000, what is the opportunity cost if project B is selected?
a) Rs 23,000
b) Rs 30,000
c) Rs 20,000
d) Rs 50,000
Answer: b) Rs 30,000Answer
QN20. A project manager is using weighted average duration estimates to perform schedule network analysis. Which type of mathematical analysis is being used?
a) Critical path method
b) PERT
c) Monte Carlo
d) Resource leveling
Answer: b) PERTAnswer
QN21. An activity has an early start (ES) of day 3, a late start (LS) of day 13, an early finish (EF) of day g, and a late finish (LF) of day ig. The activity:
a) Is on the critical path.
b) Has a lag.
c) Is progressing well.
d) Is not on the critical path.
Answer: d) Is not on the critical path.Answer
QN22. Which phase of the project is likely to have the greatest amount of its funding spent?
a) Initiating
b) Executing
c) Planning
d) Closeout
Answer: b) ExecutingAnswer
QN23. Which of the following represents the estimated value of the work actually accomplished?
a) Earned value (EV)
b) Planned value (PV)
c) Actual cost (AC)
d) Cost variance (CV)
Answer: a) Earned value (EV)Answer
QN24. A project manager is managing a project. The original scope baseline of the project was budgeted at Rs 100,000. Since works on the project started there have been seventeen authorized and approved changes to the project. The changes have a value of Rs 17,000 and the cost of investigating them prior to their approval was Rs 2,500. What is the current budget (in Rs) for the project?
a) 100,000
b) 114,500
c) 117,000
d) 119,500
e) None of the above
Answer: c) 117,000Answer
QN25. You are managing a project in a just in time environment. This will require more attention, because the amount of inventory in such an environment is generally:
a) 45 percent.
b) 10 percent.
c) 12 percent.
d) 0 percent.
Answer: d) 0 percent.Answer
QN26. A task was scheduled to use two persons, full time, and take two weeks to complete.
Instead, the project manager was only able to assign one person to this task. At the end of two weeks, the person assigned to the task was 75% complete. What is the cost performance index?
a) 0.75
b) 1.50
c) 0.25
d) 1.15
Answer: a) 0.75Answer
QN27. Which of the following is considered to be a simulation technique?
a) PERT analysis
b) GERT analysis
c) Monte Carlo analysis
d) Critical path method
Answer: c) Monte Carlo analysisAnswer
QN28. Project A has an internal rate of return (IRR) of 21 percent. Project B has an IRR of 7
percent. Project C has an IRR of 31 percent. Project D has an IRR of ig percent. Which of these would be the BEST project?
a) Project A
b) Project B
c) Project C
d) Project D
Answer: c) Project CAnswer
QN29. The program evaluation and review technique (PERT) method of scheduling differs from the critical path method (CPM) because the PERT method:
a) Uses weighted averages of activity durations to calculate project duration.
b) Uses dummy activities to represent logic ties.
c) Uses free float instead of total float in the schedule calculations.
d) Uses bar charts instead of logic diagrams to portray the schedule.
Answer: a) Uses weighted averages of activity durations to calculate project duration.Answer
QN30. In attempting to complete the project faster, the project manager looks at the cost
associated with crashing each activity. The best approach to crashing would also include looking at the:
a) Risk impact of crashing each activity.
b) Customer’s opinion of which activities to crash.
c) Boss’s opinion of which activities to crash and in which order.
d) Project life cycle phase in which the activity is due to occur.
Answer: a) Risk impact of crashing each activity.Answer
QN31. The project is not completed until:
a) The project scope is completed, administrative closure is completed and payment is received.
b) Formal acceptance is received, and any other requirements for project closure as stated in the contract are met.
c) The customer is satisfied and final payment is received.
d) Lessons learned are completed.
Answer: d) Lessons learned are completed.Answer
QN32. During project executing, a team member comes to the project manager because he is not sure of what work he needs to accomplish on the project. Which of the following documents contain detailed descriptions of work packages?
a) Work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionary
b) Activity list
c) Preliminary project scope statement
d) Project scope management plan
Answer: a) Work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionaryAnswer
QN33. You are asked to prepare a budget for completing a project that was started last year and then shelved for six months. All the following would be included in the budget except?
a) Fixed costs
b) Sunk costs
c) Direct costs
d) Variable costs
Answer: b) Sunk costsAnswer
QN34. During the project life cycle, in which part of the life cycle will risk be the lowest?
a) Initiation
b) Planning
c) Execution
d) Closeout
Answer: a) InitiationAnswer
QN35. A project manager managing any project should perform risk analysis at what stage of the project:
a) Just before any major meeting with the client.
b) On a regular basis throughout the project.
c) Only when justified by the awareness of new risks becoming a possibility.
d) When preparing the project plan.
e) None of the above
Answer: b) On a regular basis throughout the project.Answer
QN36. You are the project manager for a high visibility project. The margin on this project is low, and it is extremely important that the cost estimates for the work on the project be accurate. While reviewing the cost estimates for this project you notice that one of the cost estimates for an element in the WBS is 10% higher than two previous projects for very similar work. What should you do?
a) Accept the estimate because you trust all of the people on your project team, and they are responsible for estimates.
b) Reduce the estimate and add the additional budget to the management reserve.
c) Ask the person responsible for the estimate to explain the difference and bring supporting information to you.
d) Reduce the estimate and add the additional budget to the contingency reserve.
Answer: c) Ask the person responsible for the estimate to explain the difference and bring supporting information to you.Answer
QN37. The project life cycle differs from the product life cycle in that the project life cycle:
a) Does not incorporate a methodology.
b) Is different for each industry.
c) Can spawn many projects.
d) Describes project management activities.
Answer: d) Describes project management activities.Answer
QN38. A manager and the head of engineering discuss a change to a major work package. After the meeting, the manager contacts you and tells you to complete the paperwork to make the change. This is an example of:
a) Management attention to scope management.
b) Management planning.
c) A project expediter position.
d) A change control system.
Answer: d) A change control system.Answer
QN39. All of the following are parts of direct and manage project execution except?
a) Identifying changes
b) Using a work breakdown structure
c) Implementing corrective actions
d) Setting up a project control system
Answer: a) Identifying changesAnswer
QN40. A project manager does not have much time to spend planning before the mandatory start date arrives. He therefore wants to move through planning as effectively as possible. Which of the following would you recommend?
a) Make sure you have a completed preliminary project scope statement and then start the WBS.
b) Create an activity list before creating a network diagram.
c) Document all the known risks before you document the high-level assumptions.
d) Finalize the quality management plan before you determine quality metrics.
Answer: a) Make sure you have a completed preliminary project scope statement and then start the WBS.Answer
QN41. Which of the following is not a typical project milestone?
a) Completion of design
b) Production of a prototype
c) Training of project members
d) Completed testing of the prototype
e) Approval of a pilot run
Answer: e) Approval of a pilot runAnswer
QN42. Which of the following are organizational structures used to tie the project to the parent firm?
a) Pure project
b) Functional project
c) Matrix project
d) Only A and B
e) Only B and C
f) A, B, and C
Answer: c) Matrix projectAnswer
QN43. The advantages of pure project include all but:
a) The project manager has full authority over the project.
b) Team pride, motivation, and commitments are high.
c) Decisions are made quickly.
d) A team member can work on several projects.
e) Team members report to one boss.
Answer: a) The project manager has full authority over the project.Answer
QN44. The advantage(s) of the network planning models over the Gantt chart is (are) that:
a) they are easy to use and quite widely understood
b) the precedence relationships in network scheduling are explicitly shown
c) they are less costly to use
d) both A and B
e) both B and C
Answer: d) both A and BAnswer
QN45. “Slack” refers to the difference between:
a) latest and earliest times
b) finish and start times
c) observed and predicted times
d) optimistic and pessimistic times
e) none of the above
Answer: e) none of the aboveAnswer
QN46. Which of the following would not be considered in deciding how far to minimum-cost schedule (crash) a project?
a) Project overrun penalties
b) Incentives for early completion
c) Indirect project costs (e.g. interest on a construction loan)
d) The normal duration times of tasks not on a critical path
e) How far individual tasks can be crashed
Answer: d) The normal duration times of tasks not on a critical pathAnswer
QN47. Which statement is true about Project Scheduling?
a) Slack is defined as the difference between the earliest start and the latest finish of a task.
b) The critical path seldom has a slack time of zero.
c) Project crashing is an effort to maximize project duration.
d) The earliest finish for a task is equal to the early start plus the task duration.
e) None of the above statements are true.
Answer: e) None of the above statements are true.Answer
QN48. There is an activity “A”. The earliest activity “A” can be completed is 8 minutes, the most likely time is 10 minutes, and the latest activity “A” can be completed is 12 minutes. Assume that a Beta Distribution is used to describe the activity time. What is the expected time needed to complete activity A?
a) 8 minutes
b) 10 minutes
c) 12 minutes
d) 11 minutes
e) None of the above
Answer: b) 10 minutesAnswer
QN49. There is an activity “A”. The earliest activity “A” can be completed is 8 minutes, the most likely time is 10 minutes, and the latest activity “A” can be completed is 12 minutes. Assume that a Beta Distribution is used to describe the activity time. Which of the following is the standard deviation of this activity A?
a) sqrt (4/36)
b) sqrt (16/36)
c) sqrt (10/36)
d) 4/36
e) 16/36
Answer: b) sqrt (16/36)Answer
