QN1. Which of the following is not an objective of project management
a) Achieve specified performance
b) Complete on schedule
c) Complete within the budgeted cost
d) Eliminate complexities and risks
Answer: d) Eliminate complexities and risksAnswer
QN2. Projects are characterized by all of the following except
a) Continuous activities
b) Unique elements
c) Complex interdependencies
d) Environment of conflict
Answer: b) Unique elementsAnswer
QN3. Which of the following is not a phase in a project life cycle
a) Start up
b) Building phase
c) Control phase
d) Termination
Answer: b) Building phaseAnswer
QN4. All the work that needs to be done to attain a project objectives is
a) Scope
b) Risk
c) Vision
d) Strategy
Answer: c) VisionAnswer
QN5. Document issued by senior management that formally authorizes the existence of a project
a) Project charter
b) Work Breakdown Structure
c) Vision document
d) Work Authorization letter
Answer: a) Project charterAnswer
QN6. Which of the following does not clearly indicate the qualities of a project manager
a) Project manager must be able to define how success or failure of a project is determined
b) Project manager should build and maintain a good communication network
c) Project manager should be rigid
d) Project manager must have sufficient experience in handling projects
Answer: c) Project manager should be rigidAnswer
QN7. A Greenfield project means
a) A project that is started from scratch
b) An environment friendly project
c) A project that produces green products
d) A project that is completed at a cost less than the budgeted cost
Answer: a) A project that is started from scratchAnswer
QN8. Which of the following is not a demand on the Project Manager
a) Acquiring and motivating team members
b) Negotiating
c) Taking a rigid stand on goals
d) Dealing with obstacles
Answer: c) Taking a rigid stand on goalsAnswer
QN9. All are the skill requirements of a Project Manager except
a) Technical skills
b) Communication skills
c) Cultural skills
d) Interpersonal skills
Answer: c) Cultural skillsAnswer
QN10. Which of the following is not a demand on the Project Manager
a) A functional manager uses analytical approach whereas a project manager uses systemic approach
b) A functional manager is a technological supervisor whereas a project manager is a facilitator
c) A functional manager is a generalist whereas a project is a specialist
d) The communication requirements of a project manager is comparatively greater than that of a functional manager
Answer: c) A functional manager is a generalist whereas a project is a specialistAnswer
QN11. Which one of the following is not a disadvantage of a functional approach to project organization
a) Client gets the least focus or concern
b) Orientation towards the activities of the function
c) Motivation of the people assigned to the project tends to be very high
d) There won’t be a single person in charge of the project
Answer: d) There won’t be a single person in charge of the projectAnswer
QN12. A project organization is characterized by all except
a) A project manager has full line authority over the project
b) The level of commitment from the members is high
c) A pure project organization is structurally complex
d) Unit of command exists in a pure project organization
Answer: c) A pure project organization is structurally complexAnswer
QN13. All are the advantages of a matrix organization except
a) In a matrix organization PM is the centre of authority
b) The project can draw required expertise from functional areas
c) In a matrix organization the project gets full focus
d) The response to client needs is highly rapid
Answer: a) In a matrix organization PM is the centre of authorityAnswer
QN14. All are major behavior problems facing a project manager except
a) Perfectionism
b) Remuneration
c) Motivation
d) Conflict
Answer: b) RemunerationAnswer
QN15. A project manager would find team development the most difficult in
a) Project organization
b) Functional organization
c) Matrix organization
d) Flat organization
Answer: c) Matrix organizationAnswer
QN16. What a project manager should do to set clear boundaries for a project completion
a) Completion of Scope statement
b) Work Breakdown Structure
c) Linear responsibility chart
d) Create risk register
Answer: a) Completion of Scope statementAnswer
QN17. All of the following are characteristics of a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) except
a) WBS is a tree structure that shows a sub division of efforts required to achieve an objective
b) WBS is developed by starting with the end objective
c) WBS expresses the scope of a project in graphical form
d) WBS incorporates the time / schedule of each of the activities
Answer: c) WBS expresses the scope of a project in graphical formAnswer
QN18. The lowest element in a Work Breakdown Structure is
a) Work package
b) Program
c) Task
d) Costs
Answer: a) Work packageAnswer
QN19. A linear responsibility chart has all the following except
a) Shows who is responsible for what
b) Shows critical interfaces between units that needs special coordination
c) It shows who must approve what and who must report to whom
d) Provides the cost and schedule of each of the task
Answer: d) Provides the cost and schedule of each of the taskAnswer
QN20. If you are allowed to choose only one tool to manage a project, which one would you choose
a) Work Breakdown Structure
b) Gantt Chart
c) Resource chart
d) Risk register
Answer: a) Work Breakdown StructureAnswer
QN21. All are the traditional categories of conflict in a project except
a) Cost based
b) Goal-oriented
c) Authority-based
d) interpersonal
Answer: b) Goal-orientedAnswer
QN22. Which of the following is not a source of conflict
a) The project team itself
b) The client
c) The remuneration
d) Senior management
Answer: b) The clientAnswer
QN23. All are points of ‘principled negotiation’ except
a) Focus on the people rather than the problem
b) Focus on interests, not positions
c) Identify options for mutual gains before trying to reach an agreement
d) Use objective criteria
Answer: c) Identify options for mutual gains before trying to reach an agreementAnswer
QN24. Scheduling and technical conflicts are more frequent during
a) Start up phase
b) Build up phase
c) Maturity phase
d) Termination phase
Answer: a) Start up phaseAnswer
QN25. All are critical issues handled in a project formulation phase except
a) Specifying the technical objectives
b) Committing the resources for the project
c) Deciding the number of vendors that will take part in the tendering process
d) Selecting the project organizational structure
Answer: c) Deciding the number of vendors that will take part in the tendering processAnswer
QN26. Which of the following is not related to scope creep
a) Occurs at the planning stage of the project
b) Happens due to poor change control
c) May occur due to lack of proper definition at the initial stage
d) May occur due to strong customer requirements
Answer: a) Occurs at the planning stage of the projectAnswer
QN27. A budgeting method that begins with those who will be doing the tasks is called
a) Top-down budgeting
b) Bottom-up budgeting
c) Program budgeting
d) Zero budgeting
Answer: b) Bottom-up budgetingAnswer
QN28. All are project control tools except
a) Trend projection curve
b) Peer review
c) Critical ratios
d) Control charts
Answer: b) Peer reviewAnswer
QN29. A standard for performance, established at the beginning of the project for later comparison is
a) Baseline
b) Budget
c) Deliverables
d) Mission
Answer: b) BudgetAnswer
QN30. An uncertain event or condition that if it occurs has a positive or negative effect on project objectives is
a) Scope
b) Risk
c) Communication
d) Delays
Answer: b) RiskAnswer
QN31. An analysis carried out to estimate the potential size of the market for the product is
a) Market and demand analysis
b) Technical analysis
c) Financial analysis
d) Process analysis
Answer: a) Market and demand analysisAnswer
QN32. Technical analysis for a project is concerned with all of the following except
a) Manufacturing process
b) Composition of the product market
c) Plant capacity
d) Material inputs and utilities
Answer: b) Composition of the product marketAnswer
QN33. The cash flows occurring at the end of the project life on account of project liquidation is
a) Initial investment
b) Operating cash inflows
c) Terminal cash inflows
d) Profit
Answer: c) Terminal cash inflowsAnswer
QN34. To assess the risk of a project which of the following may not be useful?
a) Sensitivity analysis
b) Scenario analysis
c) Monte carlo simulation
d) Network analysis
Answer: a) Sensitivity analysisAnswer
QN35. The network that combines signal flow graph theory, probabilistic networks and decision trees is called
a) GERT
b) PERT
c) CPM
d) Gantt chart
Answer: a) GERTAnswer
QN36. Which of the following is not a characteristic of PERT chart?
a) Uses three time estimates
b) Probabilistic
c) Activity crashing possible
d) Can be best used for research project
Answer: c) Activity crashing possibleAnswer
QN37. All are related to Activity On Arrow (AOA) network except
a) Activities are shown on the arrow whereas the two ends of the activity represent the start and finish nodes
b) Dummy activities are used to represent two activities having the same start and finish nodes
c) Looping is allowed in AOA network
d) Strictly follows precedence relationship of activities
Answer: a) Activities are shown on the arrow whereas the two ends of the activity represent the start and finish nodesAnswer
QN38. An earned value chart does not show
a) Scheduled progress
b) Actual work
c) Actual cost
d) Risk
Answer: a) Scheduled progressAnswer
QN39. The process of allocating the required number of resources to each of the activity is known as
a) Resource Loading
b) Resource Leveling
c) Resource Smoothing
d) Resource Matching
Answer: c) Resource SmoothingAnswer
QN40. Who should be involved in the creation of lessons learned, at the closure of a project?
a) Project team
b) Management of the performing organization
c) Project vendors
d) Stake holders
Answer: a) Project teamAnswer