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Q1: Which of the following is not a feature of a good leadership development process

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Answer: Isolated Tactical Management Development

Q2: What is Upper Echelon Theory

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Answer: A theory that suggests organisations are shaped by the values and biases of its leadership

Q3: When considering the strategic definition of an organisation, which of these is NOT one considered as part of this formula

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Answer: Customers

Q4: What is ‘systems’ thinking

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Answer: Understanding the nature of the relationships between elements as well as the overall workings of the system

Q5: What does strategic alignment mean

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Answer: Ensuring the organization’s key components are coherent and coordinated

Q6: What is ‘managerial wisdom’

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Answer: Know when and how to act

Q7: Which of the following is not considered a

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Answer: None of these—a) Publicb) Nonprofitc) Charity

Q8: Which of the following are common aliases for the nonprofit sector

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Answer: All of the above

Q9: According to the Center on Philanthropy and American Express’s recent Charitable Gift Survey, which of the following was not a critical deterrent to online giving

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Answer: User error

Q10: How many registered charities are there in England and Wales

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Answer: 170000

Q11: Which of the following organizations is not a charity

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Answer: The National Health Service

Q12: In the U.S, which of the following organizations does not qualify for 501(c)3 status

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Answer: National Rifle Association

Q13: Which of the following does the Charities Act 2006 not consider to be a charitable purpose

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Answer: Advancement of professional sport

Q14: According to Nathan – what is distinctive about voluntary action

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Answer: It is funded by private funds

Q15: The mnemonic BONGO stands for

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Answer: A business organized non-governmental organization

Q16: What limit do the Council of Better Business Bureaus place on the percentage of nonprofit expenditure that they feel can legitimately be spent on fundraising

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Answer: 0%

Q17: Which one of the following groups isn’t a key customer group for an Arts Organization

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Answer: None of these—VisitorsAudiencesCorporate sponsors

Q18: What does marketing not offer nonprofit organizations

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Answer: Improved profitability

Q19: In what ways are Intangible Services different from Tangible Goods

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Answer: All of the above

Q20: Which of the following is not a typical objection to marketing

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Answer: Marketing is moral

Q21: According to the “Iceberg of Ignorance”, who is least in touch with customers needs

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Answer: Directors

Q22: Which of the following is not a part of Sargeant et al’s societal orientation model

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Answer: Customer orientation

Q23: The view of market orientation which sees the construct as primarily involving the acquisition and dissemination of market intelligence was originally developed by

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Answer: Kohli and Jaworski

Q24: What is the underlying premise of internal marketing

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Answer: Satisfied employees equals satisfied customers

Q25: Which of the following is not regarded as a route to competitive advantage

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Answer: Having more satisfied employees

Q26: Which of the following is not a facet of tactical internal marketing

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Answer: External marketing research

Q27: Which of the following is not a dimension of a marketing plan

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Answer: What are we going to do when we get there?

Q28: What is the most important aspect of an organization’s mission statement

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Answer: Terminology

Q29: In a PEEST analysis, which of the following would not be considered an economic factor

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Answer: Government policy

Q30: Who should be included in an analysis of competitors

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Answer: All of the above

Q31: Which one of the following belong to both resource attraction and resource allocation activities

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Answer: All of the above

Q32: SWOT analyses are used to

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Answer: Both summarise audit data and place an interpretation on audit data

Q33: Which of the following is not a drawback of using the product/service lifecycle model

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Answer: All of the above

Q34: Which of the following is not a drawback of portfolio models

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Answer: They make it easy to make the case to divest inappropriate products/services

Q35: In the context of an audit the purpose of a collaborative review is to

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Answer: Determine who the organization might collaborate with in the future

Q36: Statement “Marketing plans have three broad components”

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Answer: Correct – True

Q37: What is the name given to research that has already been conducted for another purpose (i.e. not conducted specifically for the matter at hand)

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Answer: Secondary research

Q38: Market research data that has been gathered about the attitudes, opinions and feelings of potential customers is known as

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Answer: Qualitative data

Q39: Which of the following is not a source of primary data

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Answer: A nonprofit’s records of past research

Q40: Which of the following is not a source of secondary data

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Answer: A field experiment

Q41: Which of the following is not an advantage of conducting primary research

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Answer: Low cost

Q42: Which of the following is not typically used to gather qualitative data

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Answer: Telephone surveys

Q43: A random sample is one where

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Answer: Every member of the population must have an equal chance of selection

Q44: True or false? A closed question in a questionnaire is one which allows the respondent to supply their own answer

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q45: True or false? The preferred size of a sample has little to do with the size of the population

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Answer: Correct – True

Q46: True or false? NVivo is a quantitative data analysis package

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q47: Which of the following is not part of the SMART model of setting marketing objectives

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Answer: Simple

Q48: Which one of the following would be considered as a SMART objective

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Answer: To raise $50,000 by the end of December, 2008

Q49: Which of the following is not a strategic direction

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Answer: Service Penetration

Q50: Which of the following is not a criteria for Segmenting Consumer Markets

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Answer: Turnover

Q51: According to Kotler (1991), which one of the following elements is “the best starting point for constructing market segments”

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Answer: Behavioral

Q52: Behavior segmentation includes which of the following

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Answer: All of the above

Q53: Which of the following is not a criteria for segmenting business markets

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Answer: Psychographics

Q54: Lifestyle segmentation is best described as

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Answer: Segmenting on the basis of interests, media exposure and attitudes

Q55: Which of the following is not a criterion for evaluating market segments

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Answer: Heterogeneity

Q56: Which of the following statements best describes positioning

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Answer: How your customers perceive you in relation to your competitors

Q57: According to Aaker, which of the following is not one of the six levels of meaning a brand can convey

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Answer: Price

Q58: A brand is a___

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Answer: A combination of All of the above

Q59: A corporate umbrella brand is

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Answer: A way of branding the organization itself

Q60: Brand personality is

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Answer: A set of human attributes the brand possesses

Q61: A brand book

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Answer: Offers the opportunity for stakeholder consultation and buy-in

Q62: Brand essence is

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Answer: The core of what the brand will stand for

Q63: A possible downside of branding a nonprofit is that

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Answer: All of the above

Q64: Why is it especially important to fundraisers that a brand be differentiated

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Answer: It increases the efficiency of fundraising

Q65: Which of the following is not a component of the visual expression of a brand

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Answer: Tone of Voice

Q66: Is the brand value ‘caring’

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Answer: A value perceived as being shared by various charities

Q67: Which of the following is not a Gap identified in the SERVQUAL method by Parasuraman et al. (1988)

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Answer: Not setting accurate prices for the consumer market

Q68: Which authors were responsible for suggesting an extended 7P marketing mix

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Answer: Booms and Bitner

Q69: Which of the following is not a dimension of the SERVQUAL model

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Answer: Sympathy

Q70: The idea underpinning the SERVQUAL model is that

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Answer: Q = P – E

Q71: On average according to Jones and Sasser, how much more likely are very satisfied customers to re-purchase than customers who are just satisfied

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Answer: 6 times

Q72: When comparing price vs. cost, it is important to include which of the following when calculating total out of pocket costs of attending a gala event, for example

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Answer: All of the above

Q73: Public Relations Departments are responsible for which of the following

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Answer: All of the above

Q74: Which of the following is not considered part of direct marketing

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Answer: Advertising

Q75: Price discrimination involves

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Answer: Charging different segments of customers different prices

Q76: Cost plus pricing is

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Answer: Pricing by calculating the cost of production and adding on a margin

Q77: Social Marketing is primarily concerned with___

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Answer: Influencing behavior

Q78: Which of the following is not part of the social marketing mix

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Answer: People

Q79: True or False? In designing a communication campaign, you should always determine your budget first

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q80: Which form of appeal has the most power to attract attention

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Answer: Sexual appeals

Q81: Low involvement decision situations

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Answer: Require less thought from the individual and require promotional appeals based on emotion and ego

Q82: Conclusions should be drawn in social marketing communications when

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Answer: The decision is low involvement

Q83: The use of humour in appeals

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Answer: All of the above

Q84: Which of the following is the correct progression of stages that consumers should be moved through if communicated with effectively

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Answer: Unawareness, Awareness, Comprehension, Conviction, Action

Q85: In a communications plan, ‘control’ addresses

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Answer: How progress towards the objectives will be assessed

Q86: Impact evaluation is concerned with

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Answer: Assessing how societal behaviours have changed

Q87: The Fundraising Plan does not include which of the following

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Answer: Staff listing

Q88: In the context of database fundraising, what does the R in the mneumonic FRM stand for

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Answer: Recency

Q89: When conducting a donor recruitment campaign what would you typically expect to receive back for every £1 invested

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Answer: 50p

Q90: Reciprocals are

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Answer: Mailings to individuals whose details you have been given by swopping lists with another nonprofit

Q91: Where can you find information on the cost of fundraising in the UK

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Answer: www.Charityfacts.org

Q92: The new regulator of fundraising activity in the UK is the

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Answer: Fund Raising Standards Board

Q93: In the United States, what percentage of pre-tax profits is given on average by companies to support nonprofits

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Answer: 0.01%

Q94: Which of the following is not an advantage of raising funds from trusts and foundations

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Answer: It can take only weeks to secure funding

Q95: How much does it typically cost to raise a £1 or a $1? (i.e. combining recruitment and development activities)

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Answer: 20p or 20 cents

Q96: In the United States what percentage of nonprofits typically report no costs of fundraising on their Forms 990

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Answer: 0%

Q97: In the UK, which of the following are included in the definition of the “arts”

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Answer: All of the above

Q98: Which of the following are examples of cross-selling

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Answer: Encouraging customers for one category of event to attend and view another

Q99: Which of the following are not reasons corporations may sponsor arts activities

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Answer: None of these—a) To build up awareness of a corporate name or brandb) To add value to a name or brand by demonstrating good citizenshipc) To generate favorable

Q100: What practice might assist an arts organization in establishing the lifestyle interests and profile of their customers

View Answer

Answer: Data Mining
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