Generic selectors
Exact matches only
Search in title
Search in content
Search in posts
Search in pages
Filter by Categories
nmims post
Objective Type Set
Online MCQ Assignment
Question Solution
Solved Question
Uncategorized

Q1: Sanjeev opens up an Indian restaurant and advertises for a chief chef. The advertisement states that the chef must be Indian. Steve applies for the job but is rejected on the ground that he is English. Is this race discrimination

View Answer

Answer: No

Q2: Which ONE of the following is unlikely to qualify as a ‘physical or mental impairment’ under the Equality Act 2010

View Answer

Answer: Alcoholism

Q3: In order for a woman to establish that she performs ‘like work’ to that of a man, she will need to demonstrate that she performs an identical job to that of a man. True or False

View Answer

Answer: Wrong – False

Q4: Resignation never amounts to dismissal. True or False

View Answer

Answer: Wrong – False

Q5: Statement “Where a frustrating event is an event affecting the employee, then the employee will be regarded as dismissed.”

View Answer

Answer: Incorrect

Q6: Melissa has been employed for eight years. Her employment contract does not provide for a minimum notice period. She is dismissed by her employer. According to statute, what is the minimum notice period that Melissa is entitled to

View Answer

Answer: Seven weeks

Q7: Cathy’s contract of employment provides that she is employed by Monk plc solely to acquire a particular asset. She acquires this asset. In law, what effect does the acquisition of the asset have on her contract of employment

View Answer

Answer: The contract is automatically terminated and Cathy is regarded as dismissed.

Q8: Which ONE of the following is unlikely to allow an employer to summarily dismiss an employee

View Answer

Answer: The employee commits a negligent act which causes his employer to suffer financial loss.

Q9: Which ONE of the following is unlikely to justify an employee regarding himself as constructively dismissed

View Answer

Answer: The employer refuses an employee’s request for time off.

Q10: Regarding an award of damages for wrongful dismissal, which ONE of the following statements is NOT true

View Answer

Answer: The rules regarding mitigation do not apply.

Q11: There are numerous differences between wrongful dismissal and unfair dismissal. Given this, which ONE of the following statements in NOT true

View Answer

Answer: Only employees can bring a claim for wrongful dismissal, whereas employees and independent contractors can claim for unfair dismissal.

Q12: On the 26th March 2012, Mario starts work for BioTech plc. His contract provides that he is entitled to six week’s notice. On the 15th March 2013, he is dismissed after he discloses confidential information to a rival company. He alleges unfair dismissal. Is Mario eligible to claim for unfair dismissal

View Answer

Answer: No

Q13: In a normal agency relationship where the agent acts within his authority, a binding contract is usually created between which two parties

View Answer

Answer: The principal and a third party

Q14: Which ONE of the following statements concerning commercial agents is NOT true

View Answer

Answer: Self-employed agents will not be classified as commercial agents.

Q15: Regarding the capacity of principal and agent, which ONE of the following statements is NOT true

View Answer

Answer: A minor cannot act as an agent in a transaction which he would not have capacity to enter into on his own behalf.

Q16: In order for apparent authority to arise, a representation must be made by the principal prior to the contract being entered into. True or False

View Answer

Answer: Wrong – False

Q17: Statement “Apparent authority is based on the doctrine of estoppel”.

View Answer

Answer: Correct – True

Q18: There are numerous limitations and conditions regarding when agency by ratification can arise. Which ONE of the following is NOT a valid limitation or condition

View Answer

Answer: In order to ratify, the agent must have contractual capacity to enter into the contract on the date which he entered into the contract on the principal’s behalf.

Q19: Where a third party deals with an agent, but is not aware that he is dealing with an agent, the principal will not normally be contractually bound to the third party. True or False

View Answer

Answer: Wrong – False

Q20: An agent is subject to a number of duties. Which ONE of the following statements regarding the duties of an agent is NOT true

View Answer

Answer: An agent can only disobey his principal’s instructions if he honestly believes that disobeying those instructions is in his principal’s best interests.

Q21: Agents have a number of rights. Which ONE of the following statements regarding these rights is NOT true

View Answer

Answer: Both commercial and non-commercial agents have a right to be paid.

Q22: International legal agreements relating to the environment become binding upon a state as soon as the agreement is passed. True or false

View Answer

Answer: Wrong – False

Q23: What does the precautionary principle state

View Answer

Answer: Where there is a threat of damage to human health or to the environment, but a lack of scientific evidence means that the existence or scale of the threat cannot be determined, preventative action should still be undertaken, and the lack of scientific evidence should not be used as an excuse for inaction.

Q24: The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change imposes upon states legally binding obligations. True or false

View Answer

Answer: Wrong – False

Q25: Which piece of law legally commits the UK to specific reductions in greenhouse gas emissions

View Answer

Answer: The Kyoto Protocol

Q26: The Regulatory Enforcement and Sanctions Act 2008 allows a number of regulators to issue a number of sanctions. Which ONE of the following sanctions cannot be issued under the 2008 Act

View Answer

Answer: A stop notice, prohibiting the carrying on of a specified activity.

Q27: What is the fundamental assumption of trait theory

View Answer

Answer: Leaders are born and not made

Q28: What is a Trait

View Answer

Answer: A pattern of behaviour, thought and emotion

Q29: What was Great Man theory

View Answer

Answer: A historical reference to a group of dominant male leaders

Q30: Why did the Trait Theory of Leadership suffer a decline in interest

View Answer

Answer: Because no consensus could be reached on what to include/omit from the list of necessary traits

Q31: What did McCall and Lombardo propose

View Answer

Answer: That certain traits may hinder an individual’s ability to lead

Q32: What is the premise that underpins behavioral models

View Answer

Answer: That leadership can be taught and hence learnt

Q33: What does the ‘behaviourist’ school promote

View Answer

Answer: That behaviour is acquired by conditioning

Q34: What are the two dimensions on Blake and Mouton’s managerial grid

View Answer

Answer: Concern for People and Concern for Results

Q35: What are the three broad categories Minzberg (1973) identified as being part of the role a manager had to address

View Answer

Answer: Interpersonal, Information Processing and Decision Making

Q36: What is the key message for leaders according to Adair

View Answer

Answer: They need to ensure they pay equal attention to the Task, team and individual in the medium to long term.

Q37: How does the style approach differ from trait theory

View Answer

Answer: The approach suggests a leader should adapt their approach to take into account the nature of their followers

Q38: What did Tannenbaum and Schmidt (1958) suggest

View Answer

Answer: That a leader should be able to access one of seven different approaches to their followers

Q39: Tannenbaum and Schmidt (1958) outline what as the three ‘forces’ that influence a leadership approach

View Answer

Answer: Manager, Subordinate, Situation

Q40: Vroom and Yetton’s (1973) decision tree model asks the manager to do what

View Answer

Answer: A choice of behaviours depending on the analysis of the situation

Q41: What is the key message for leaders according to the Style approach

View Answer

Answer: That taking into account situational factors when decision making will improve the likely outcome of that decision.

Q42: ‘Contingent’ when used in a leadership sense means what

View Answer

Answer: That the success of a leader depends on certain factors the leader must be cognisant of and must adjust their approach appropriately.

Q43: Hersey and Blanchard’s Situational Leadership Model asks the leader to consider what two factors in regard to their followers

View Answer

Answer: The psychological and task readiness of the follower

Q44: Hersey and Blanchard’s model has four different leadership styles. What are these

View Answer

Answer: Directing, Coaching, Supporting, Delegating

Q45: Leadership Substitutes Theory suggests what

View Answer

Answer: That factors external to the leader could have just as an important impact on any outcome

Q46: An example of a leadership ‘neutraliser’ would be what

View Answer

Answer: A bureaucratic organizational with no room for recognition of good performance

Q47: Joan Woodward suggested what in relation to how organizations should be structured

View Answer

Answer: That organizations should be structured to take into account their environment

Q48: What are the features of a mechanistic organization

View Answer

Answer: Highly structured with well-defined roles and a vertical hierarchy

Q49: What is a Least Preferred Co-Worker

View Answer

Answer: A person who you would find it most demanding to work alongside

Q50: What is the central message of ‘Leader Match’

View Answer

Answer: A leader should attempt to change the situation they are in to match their personality

Q51: What is the formula for Path-Goal Theory

View Answer

Answer: F=S(ExV)

Q52: The Greek word for ‘charisma’ means what

View Answer

Answer: Divine favour

Q53: Self Concept Theory relates to what

View Answer

Answer: The skill of a charismatic leader in linking task achievement with self-image of the follower

Q54: Attribution Theory relates to what phenomenon

View Answer

Answer: How followers label individuals as charismatic

Q55: According to Bass and Avoio (1995) what are some of the characteristics of charismatic leaders

View Answer

Answer: Emotional expressiveness, insight, eloquence

Q56: What is transformational leadership

View Answer

Answer: Engaging the hearts and minds of followers

Q57: An authentic leader could be described as

View Answer

Answer: A person who is true to themselves

Q58: What did Donald Winnicott think a healthy person achieved

View Answer

Answer: A personality where their true self dominates

Q59: Authentic Leaders exhibit which four components

View Answer

Answer: Self-Awareness; Internalised Moral Perspective; Balanced Processing; Relational Transparency

Q60: Authentic Leaders are motivated by what

View Answer

Answer: The desire to make the lives of their community better

Q61: What is Machiavellian behaviour

View Answer

Answer: Acting in an immoral, underhand and sly manner

Q62: Followership means what

View Answer

Answer: An individual with a set of properties that combine to enable them to be effective for their organization.

Q63: In Kelley’s typology of followers what attributes does a ‘yes person’ have

View Answer

Answer: A Follower who carries out instructions without challenge or modification

Q64: How are followers viewed in Leader-Member Exchange Theory (LMX)

View Answer

Answer: As individuals who have a unique relationship with their leader

Q65: What are the names of the two groups that form according to LMX

View Answer

Answer: The ‘in’ group and ‘out group’

Q66: Impression Management suggests what

View Answer

Answer: Managing your behaviour so that others see you in a certain light.

Q67: What is the central belief of the broad psychodynamic approach

View Answer

Answer: That by understanding yourself better you can make better choices about your behaviour when making decisions.

Q68: Freud’s model of personality has which three parts

View Answer

Answer: Id, super-ego, ego

Q69: The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator has which four basic scales

View Answer

Answer: E&I; S&N; T&F; J&P

Q70: NLP stands for what

View Answer

Answer: Neuro-Linguistic Programming

Q71: The VAKOG model is shorthand for what

View Answer

Answer: Visual; Auditory; Kinaesthetic; Olfactory; Gustatory

Q72: What is emotional Intelligence

View Answer

Answer: The ability to monitor one’s own and others’ feelings and one’s thinking and actions

Q73: What is the amygdala

View Answer

Answer: An area of the brain said to be linked to emotion

Q74: What idea did Howard Gardner propose

View Answer

Answer: That the definition of intelligence should be broader than IQ

Q75: What links Iago and The Prince

View Answer

Answer: They manipulated others for their own ends

Q76: What is one major criticism of EI

View Answer

Answer: There is a lack of empirical data or valid definition

Q77: What does ‘diversity’ mean in the context of leadership

View Answer

Answer: Ensuring the leadership in an organization is both diverse in terms of its constituency and in its thinking patterns

Q78: What is social Identity Theory

View Answer

Answer: A theory that attempts to explain why humans form social groups

Q79: What is the difference between sex and gender

View Answer

Answer: Sex is a biological term for classification whereas gender is a socially constructed concept

Q80: What does androgyny in the context of leadership mean

View Answer

Answer: Leaders need to display behaviours associated with male and female styles depending on the situation

Q81: What is the GLOBE project concerned with

View Answer

Answer: A project trying to uncover if national culture influences leadership styles.

Q82: What is legitimate power

View Answer

Answer: Power that emerges from a role such as a manager or lecturer

Q83: What did Milgram show

View Answer

Answer: That legitimate authority coupled with ‘expert’ power can force individuals to commit acts of barbarity

Q84: What is Expert Power

View Answer

Answer: Power that emerges when an individual is persuaded another has the solution to their problem as a result of their inherent knowledge

Q85: What is connection power

View Answer

Answer: The ability to control access to other people and resources via networking

Q86: What was Lord Acton accredited with saying

View Answer

Answer: ‘Power tends to corrupt, absolute power corrupts absolutely’

Q87: What is a normative team model

View Answer

Answer: An approach that defines a team in terms of a set of shared values

Q88: What lies at the heart of Belbin’s Model

View Answer

Answer: An assumption that effective teams need a range of different personality types capable of performing certain key roles

Q89: What is the Team Management Wheel

View Answer

Answer: A model based on the idea that individuals are psychologically suited to a type of work

Q90: What is a phase based model of team building

View Answer

Answer: An idea that values, norms and behaviour of individuals in team settings changes over time

Q91: What is Groupthink

View Answer

Answer: *An attempt to explain why groups occasionally reach erroneous conclusions even when the prevailing data would suggest an alternative end*Social pressure put on individuals to think in a particular wayNote: Both are correctExplanation1. A concept coined by Janis (1972) to describe group decision making. In particular this model attempts to explain why on occasions teams make very poor quality decisions despite there being evidence and knowledge available that would help them to reach an alternative decision.2. Identified by Janis, groupthink occurs when powerful social pressures are put on group members to think in a particular way.

Q92: What is a ‘wicked’ problem

View Answer

Answer: Wicked problems are unique with no previous solution

Q93: What is Soft System Methodology (SSM)

View Answer

Answer: An approach to problem solving that tries to uncover why events take place

Q94: What are the three stages associated with Lewin’s (1951) model of change

View Answer

Answer: Unfreezing, change and refreezing

Q95: What does the Transition Curve show

View Answer

Answer: The emotions of individuals experiencing change

Q96: What did Buchanan and Badham (2008) suggest

View Answer

Answer: Individuals use a variety of techniques and tactics to place themselves at an advantage when organizations change

Q97: What is meant by ‘leadership development’

View Answer

Answer: The acquisition, development and utilisation of leadership capability in an organisational context

Q98: What did Carmichael suggest was the purpose of Leadership Development

View Answer

Answer: To enhance effective management behaviour

Q99: What is a ‘leadership competence’

View Answer

Answer: An underlying characteristic of an individual that is causally related to effective or superior performance in a job

Q100: Which one of the following is not an effective leadership development tool

View Answer

Answer: Attending meetings