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Q1: Simpson and Thorpe’s (1995) PLIN model referred to four factors. What were they

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Answer: Product, Lifestyle, Image, and Niche

Q2: What are the five factors identified by Vida, Reardon, and Fairhurst (2000) that they suggest act as determinants of international retail involvement

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Answer: Competitive advantages, international knowledge, international experience, management attitudes, retailer size

Q3: The Q ratio shows the relationship between capitalization and asset value. Therefore, if a company scores above one or, to express it another way, parity, it has managed to

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Answer: generate intangible value such as brand value, which means the retailer is worth, or capitalization is considered to be, more than its simple stock of tangible assets.

Q4: Toys R Us and Ikea are examples of which of the following

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Answer: Category killer

Q5: Walmart operates four formats. These are

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Answer: Walmart discount stores, Walmart supercentres, Walmart neighbourhood markets and Sam’s Club

Q6: International food retailing is essentially a phenomenon that has emerged from

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Answer: European markets

Q7: As we move in to the future, big box retailers will be better placed to compete in

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Answer: emerging markets and depend on distribution efficiencies and location to ensure primary market impact.

Q8: When retailers move into neighbouring markets it is described as

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Answer: Border hopping

Q9: Burt (1993) suggested that cultural proximity

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Answer: encouraged expansion from one market to another.

Q10: Economically, market attraction occurs where

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Answer: either by a relatively high level of development or by a relatively low level of growth when measured against the domestic market.

Q11: Thinking about retail structure, which would you expect

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Answer: Canadian retailers to me less successful than US retailers when moving across the Canadian/US border.

Q12: Where a number of markets exchange retail operations and a single market does not dominate the internationalisation process, the outcome is called

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Answer: Multilateral integration

Q13: The global political structure may be considered on how many levels

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Answer: Three

Q14: Recent research by Myers and Alexander (2007) has suggested that the emergence of a European retail structure is based around which EU markets

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Answer: France and Germany

Q15: NAFTA stands for

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Answer: North American Free Trade Area

Q16: On the basis of current population projections, if international retailers were to limit themselves to those markets that they primarily targeted in the fifty years 1950-2000, in the following fifty years 2000-50; would they be serving

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Answer: A declining proportion of the world population

Q17: Statement “In markets where there is a high GDP per capita figure, service industries make a far more significant contribution to GDP calculations than in markets with a low GDP per capita figure.”

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Answer: Correct

Q18: Which of the following does modern retailing support

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Answer: An urbanized environment

Q19: In developed markets you would expect to find

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Answer: the population under 15 years representing a small percentage of those aged 60 years or over.

Q20: Compared with markets in Southern Europe, household sizes in markets in North West Europe are

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Answer: Small and the number of rooms per person is higher

Q21: According to Hofstede (1983) culture is

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Answer: ‘that part of our conditioning that we share with other members of our nation, region, or group but not with members of other nations, regions, or groups.’

Q22: What were the four general approaches to social interaction that emerged from Hofstede’s research

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Answer: Village market, family, pyramid and well-oiled machine

Q23: Statement “A high number of inhabitants per retail outlet suggests a market with a developed retail structure.”

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Answer: Correct

Q24: Concentration calculations measure

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Answer: the share of a market held by one retailer or a group of retail enterprises.

Q25: Statement “As enterprise density decreases, so the ratio of non-food to food retail outlets rises.”

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Answer: Correct

Q26: Statement “Innovation will tend to flow to markets that are less advanced than the market that provides the innovation.”

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Answer: Correct

Q27: Emerging markets today are attractive to large retail enterprises from highly developed markets because

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Answer: they promise to sustain the international retailers’ levels and rate of growth.

Q28: Which of these strategic options describes retailers’ usual route to international expansion

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Answer: The business maintains its present product lines and expand into new markets in which it is not currently operating.

Q29: What is retail saturation

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Answer: Saturation is when a retailer reaches a point of national development where further growth will provide only limited benefits. At this stage, the geographical market will be covered and market share will be relatively high compared with other operators.

Q30: Which of these factors would you describe as a push factor

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Answer: Restrictive regulatory environment in the domestic market

Q31: Which of these factors would you describe as a pull factor

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Answer: Depressed share prices in international markets

Q32: Alexander (1995) suggests that retailers at the moment of internationalisation occupy one of four positions. Which of the four lists is correct

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Answer: Autochthonic, reactive, proactive, expansive

Q33: There should be two stages in the market selection process

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Answer: Market scanning and market research

Q34: When researching a new market, qualitative research is useful to the retailer because

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Answer: it provides powerful commentaries and insights into the way consumers in a market think about certain issues.

Q35: When researching a new market, quantitative research is useful to the retailer because

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Answer: it provides large samples relatively cheaply. It is descriptive and it is easily measured and compared.

Q36: Recently Alexander, Rhodes, and Myers (2007) have shown that

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Answer: the idea that retailers rely on a scientific approach to market selection, needs to be tempered by an understanding of the ‘non-systematic criteria’ of market selection, primarily the personal beliefs, experiences, or network groups that may influence market selection.

Q37: Scanning, an initial stage in the process of market assessment should

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Answer: be used to exclude markets and not to choose markets.

Q38: Logistics is

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Answer: the management of the entire supply chain, from production to the delivery of product to the consumer.

Q39: Fernie, Pfab, and Marchant (2000) delineate four stages in the development of the grocery supply chain in the UK. These are

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Answer: Supplier control (pre-1980); centralization (1981-9); just-in-time (1990-5); relationship (1995-present)

Q40: ECR Europe defines ECR as

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Answer: a global movement in the grocery industry focusing on the total supply chain-suppliers, manufacturers, wholesalers and retailers, working close together to fulfil the changing demand of the grocery consumer better, faster and at less cost.

Q41: Christopher, Lowson, and Peck (2004) determine that fashion markets are characterized by

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Answer: short lifecycles; high volatility; low predictability; high impulse purchasing.

Q42: Christopher, Lowson, and Peck (2004) determine three critical lead times that characterize fashion supply chains

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Answer: Time-to-market; time-to-serve; time-to-react

Q43: Segmentation provides a means of

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Answer: measuring and hence building an understanding of the market and thereby facilitating the targeting of a consumer group and the subsequent positioning of the retailer with respect to the competition.

Q44: Kotler (1988: 308) defines positioning as

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Answer: the act of designing the company’s image and value offer so that the segment’s customers understand and appreciate what the company stands for in relation to its competitors.

Q45: The criteria of Davies (1992) for retail brand status are well established as a benchmark. The retail brand must

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Answer: be differentiated within the competitive environment; have an image of quality that commands a price premium; have a separate existence to the corporation that would facilitate licensing; provide a symbolic value to the customer.

Q46: Bridson and Evans (2004) suggest that when building brands fashion retailers can particularly benefit from focusing on four key advantages

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Answer: Merchandise advantage; customer service advantage; customer communication advantage; trading format advantage.

Q47: Balmer and Greyser (2006) outline corporate branding with reference to six ‘C’s

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Answer: Character, culture, communication, conceptualizations, constituencies, and covenants.

Q48: Alexander, Quinn, and Cairns (2005: 8) define international retail divestment as

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Answer: company actions resulting in a reduced presence in a foreign market. This may take the form of closure of stores, sale of store chain, termination of a business contract/agreement (joint venture/franchising and so on) or organisational restructuring in the form of changing from corporate ownership to a franchising or licensing or distribution agreement. Divestment may or may not involve market exit.

Q49: Chow and Hamilton (1993) originally classified the growing literature on domestic divestment into three strands based on the domain from which the work was emanating

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Answer: industrial organization, finance, and corporate strategy.

Q50: Much international divestment research claims that

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Answer: acquisitions are more likely to be divested than other modes of entry.

Q51: Antecedents to divestment are concerned with

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Answer: The reasons for divestment

Q52: The concept of escalating commitment, whereby a firm continues with a course of action that is not producing results (Matthyssens and Pauwels, 2000) is

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Answer: evident in the examples of international divestment by Marks and Spencer, Boots, Tesco, and Ahold

Q53: The emerging markets of today

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Answer: will remain promising markets for development only if regulatory reform occurs within a stable political environment.

Q54: Economic stability is

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Answer: fundamental to the steady growth in international activity generally but unimportant for the individual retail organization’s internationalization strategy.

Q55: The key issue that has limited international retail expansion into India in the past has been

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Answer: the regulatory environment, which has precluded retailers from outside the country entering on a majority ownership basis.

Q56: China is a vast consumer market

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Answer: where a retailer’s understanding of the nuances of different regions and cities is crucial to success in the market.

Q57: By 2008 Russia’s retail market

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Answer: remained relatively immature and under-consolidated.

Q58: Statement “Marketing is the activity, set of institutions, and processes for creating, communicating, delivering, and exchanging offerings that have value for customers, clients, partners, and society at large.”

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Answer: Correct

Q59: A marketing philosophy summarized by the phrase ‘a stronger focus on social and ethical concerns in marketing’ is characteristic of the___period

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Answer: societal marketing

Q60: Which of the following factors contributed to the transition from the production period to the sales period

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Answer: More sophisticated production techniques.

Q61: An organization with a___orientation assumes that customers will resist purchasing products not deemed essential. The job of marketers is to overcome this resistance through personal selling and advertising

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Answer: sales

Q62: Marketing period, 1950s-1980s-characterized by a more advanced focus on the___

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Answer: customer’s needs.

Q63: Joint creation of value, in which customers take part in an active dialogue and co-construct personalized experiences, is referred to

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Answer: co-creation experience.

Q64: Which of the following is not an element of the marketing mix

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Answer: Target market.

Q65: Newsletters, catalogues, and invitations to organization-sponsored events are most closely associated with the marketing mix activity of

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Answer: Promotion

Q66: The___is concerned with ideas of the ‘marketing mix’ and the 4Ps

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Answer: consumer goods perspective.

Q67: In public sector markets, the___is bound by strict legal guidelines for contracts valued over a set amount

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Answer: procurement process.

Q68: The___delivers to us a wide array of offerings, either directly, or indirectly through business markets, to serve our wants and needs

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Answer: aggregate marketing system

Q69: A market orientation recognizes that

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Answer: market intelligence relating to current and future customer needs is important.

Q70: Which of the following processes is not fundamental in explaining how consumers think and learn about products and brands

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Answer: Personality.

Q71: The process of screening meaningful from non-meaningful information is known as___

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Answer: selective exposure

Q72: Bollywood cinema aimed at audiences in the Indian sub-continent and at diaspora around the world, using strong love and ethical themes, and a musical format, is an example of

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Answer: Ethnic marketing.

Q73: Which of the following is typically not a result of recognizing the importance of ethnic groups by marketers

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Answer: Use of an undifferentiated one-size-fits-all marketing strategy.

Q74: The single group within society that is most vulnerable to reference group influence is

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Answer: children, who base most of their buying decisions on outside influences.

Q75: ___can be defined as the aspect of our psyche that determines the way in which we respond to our environment in a relatively stable way over time

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Answer: Personality

Q76: According to Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs theory, the need for fulfilment, for realizing one’s own potential, and for fully using one’s talents and capabilities are examples of___needs

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Answer: self-actualization

Q77: A person who is in the position of attempting to satisfy their needs at the most basic level is operating at the level of Maslow’s needs hierarchy called the need for

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Answer: physiological needs.

Q78: Which of the following is an assumption in Maslow’s hierarchy of needs

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Answer: Lower-level needs must be at least partially satisfied before higher needs can affect behaviour.

Q79: Which of the following is an example of picking decision making

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Answer: Setting up a mortgage account with a new bank.

Q80: Post-purchase re-evaluation of the consumer proposition acquisition process attempts to measure the degree of

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Answer: consumer satisfaction with the purchase.

Q81: When analysing consumer lifecycles, marketers look at consumers in differing stages of their life. Many models upon which these are based were developed in the 1960s. Since then a lot has changed in ‘consumer lifecycles’. Which emerging trends should marketers take into consideration

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Answer: All of the above

Q82: A marketing research firm contracts with clients to conduct a complete marketing research project from data collection, analysis and reporting. It is a___firm

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Answer: full-service agency

Q83: Marketers usually decide whether to conduct marketing research study internally or through an outside organization based on certain criteria. Which of the following criterion is not used

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Answer: The size of the agency.

Q84: Market testing studies use___to carry out controlled experiments in specific country regions, where specific adverts can be shown, before exposing the ‘new feature’ (offering, campaign, distribution, etc.) to a full national or even international launch

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Answer: test markets

Q85: When little is known about the problem, research seeking to discover the cause of a problem by discussing the problem with informed sources and examining pre-existing data is undertaken. This type of research is

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Answer: exploratory research.

Q86: A common research technique, used particularly in retailing (on- and off-line) where consumers are recruited by researchers to act as anonymous buyers in order to evaluate customer satisfaction is referred to as

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Answer: mystery shopping.

Q87: Primary data are

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Answer: data collected for the first time specifically for a marketing research study.

Q88: A research approach aimed at decoding consumer culture, which, instead of interviewing or observing people, analyzes the content of advertisements and other texts to uncover the meaning of the signs and symbols contained. is called

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Answer: semiotic research.

Q89: A probability sample constructed so that randomly selected sub-samples of different groups are represented in the total sample is called a

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Answer: stratified sample.

Q90: Types of non-probability samples include

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Answer: convenience and quota samples.

Q91: ___is an important analytical tool as it draws attention to the cash flow and investment characteristics of each of a firm’s offerings and indicates how financial resources can be manoeuvred to attain optimal strategic performance over the long term

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Answer: Portfolio analysis

Q92: Robert is a marketer for a global consumer products company. He is working on the promotional campaign designed to reach a target audience in a new international market. Robert is working hard to make sure that the promotional campaign is clearly understood by the nation’s consumers and doesn’t offend anyone. Which of the factors in the external environment is he being influenced by

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Answer: Socio-cultural environment.

Q93: Marketing decision makers in a firm must constantly monitor competitors’ activities – their products, prices, distribution, and promotional efforts – because

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Answer: new product offerings by a competitor with the resulting competitive variations may require adjustments to one or more components of the firm’s marketing mix.

Q94: To make sense of the external environment, the well-known acronym, PESTLE is used. PESTLE stands for___

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Answer: the Political, Economic, Social, Technological, Legal, and Ecological environments.

Q95: As technology continues to offer more different methods for shopping online, manufacturers and traditional retailers are finding themselves in direct competition with each other. In this case, unless marketing managers understand___, retailers cannot intelligently plan for the future

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Answer: their competitors’ strategies, the economic conditions which influence the growth of technology and changing social attitudes towards it

Q96: A statement about what an organization wants to become, which sets out an organization’s future, is referred to as

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Answer: vision.

Q97: In SWOT analysis, situations where organizations are able to convert weaknesses into strengths and threats into opportunities, these are called

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Answer: conversion strategies.

Q98: Which of the following is not the conditions necessary for the achievement of sustainable competitive advantage (SCA)

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Answer: The perceived difference results from cheaper price.

Q99: These objectives are often the most suitable when firms operate in a market dominated by a major competitor and where their financial resources are limited

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Answer: Niche objectives

Q100: This type of growth refers to concentrating activities on markets and/or products that are familiar

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Answer: Intensive
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