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Q1: Functional benchmarking involves

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Answer: benchmarking organizations with regards to specific business activities or processes.

Q2: Internationalization stimuli refer to

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Answer: internal and external factors that influence a firm’s decision to initiate, develop, and sustain international business activities.

Q3: First mover advantage suggests that

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Answer: pioneering businesses are able to obtain higher profits and other benefits as the consequence of early market entry.

Q4: The difficulties as a result of the different norms and rules that constrain human behaviour are called

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Answer: Liability of foreignness

Q5: High psychic distance can

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Answer: discourage the firm’s international expansion into a given country.

Q6: The Uppsala Model can help to understand

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Answer: a firm’s initial choice of international location and its mode of entry into foreign markets.

Q7: Which of the following is NOT a mode of entry into foreign markets

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Answer: Internationalization

Q8: Franchising involves

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Answer: the transfer of a business concept, with corresponding operational guidelines, to non-domestic parties for a fee.

Q9: Horizontal and Vertical are types of

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Answer: Mergers and acquisitions

Q10: De-internationalization can be the result of two different processes

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Answer: Company failure and strategic decision-making

Q11: Which of the following is NOT a strategic alliance

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Answer: Merger

Q12: What is the most frequent internal motive for a strategic alliance

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Answer: Resource need

Q13: An alliance between a supplier and a buyer that agree to use and share skills and capabilities in the supply chain, is called

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Answer: Vertical integration alliance

Q14: What is the most important criterion for selecting an alliance partner

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Answer: Alliance partner must help the company towards a competitive advantage.

Q15: An optimal business partner in a successful international strategic alliance should have two key qualities

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Answer: Strategic fit and cultural fit

Q16: Why do alliances between a large Western multinational firm and an emerging economy firm often fail

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Answer: The partner objectives are very divergent.

Q17: What is “strategic control”

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Answer: Control over the means and methods on which the whole conduct of an organization depends.

Q18: The average life span for a strategic alliance is about

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Answer: 7 years

Q19: What advantage comes from trust between alliance partners

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Answer: Trust makes partners more willing to share information.

Q20: Subsidiary-level strategy deals with the question of

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Answer: how a subsidiary positions itself among local and international rivals.

Q21: The two broad types of subsidiary-level strategy are

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Answer: support and implementation, and autonomous subsidiaries.

Q22: Michael Porter proposed

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Answer: two basic strategies that a subsidiary can use to create value for customers.

Q23: A subsidiary cost leadership strategy involves

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Answer: setting out to become the lowest-cost producer relative to the firm’s rivals.

Q24: The two global level strategies are

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Answer: Corporate and subsidiary

Q25: When the subsidiary faces conditions of high environmental uncertainty, headquarter managers should

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Answer: give more authority to subsidiaries to make strategic decisions.

Q26: The more similar the local markets are

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Answer: the more likely that subsidiaries play a support and implementation role.

Q27: Mini-replica subsidiaries operate as

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Answer: A small-scale replicas of their parent firms

Q28: Multinational firms should have a single standard corporate strategy if

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Answer: their products and services are accepted around the world.

Q29: One of the key tasks of the corporate parent is

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Answer: deciding on and enforcing the strategic direction of the multinational firm.

Q30: Corporate parent refers to

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Answer: the headquarter’s level within a multinational firm with different subsidiaries.

Q31: Cultural control relies on

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Answer: employing expatriate managers as top managers of subsidiaries.

Q32: Control of subsidiaries can be carried out in

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Answer: two ways: personal or impersonal.

Q33: What are the three main types of control

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Answer: Output control, behavioural control and cultural control

Q34: Industrial diversification is justifiable if

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Answer: if enhances shareholders’ value.

Q35: What are the two options of industrial diversification

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Answer: Related diversification and unrelated diversification

Q36: What is NOT an advantage of vertical integration

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Answer: It enables the firm to internationalize quickly.

Q37: Offshoring generally refers to

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Answer: Reallocation of activities to emerging and developing countries.

Q38: What is NOT a cause of value destruction by corporate parents

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Answer: Seeking synergies between subsidiaries

Q39: What do organizational structures explain

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Answer: Who does what, where and when

Q40: What are the advantages of the functional structure

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Answer: It makes communication easy among people from the same specialists.

Q41: When is the international division structure appropriate

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Answer: When foreign operations are relatively small.

Q42: When is the geographical division appropriate

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Answer: When customers’ taste varies significantly across countries.

Q43: Typically, in a global product structure

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Answer: marketing is subservient to operations.

Q44: Barlett and Ghoshal (1989) said that the matrix structure is

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Answer: prove all but unmanageable.

Q45: A significant weakness of the multi-domestic arrangement is

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Answer: duplication of activities.

Q46: In transnational firms, managers must emphasize

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Answer: interdependence between subsidiaries.

Q47: According to the Stopford and Wells model, a high degree of diversification and high level of foreign sales should lead the multinational firm to adopt

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Answer: Matrix structure

Q48: The transnational structure is

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Answer: not dominated by hierarchy.

Q49: What are the two types of change management

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Answer: Incremental change and transformational change

Q50: In high collectivist cultures, leaders need to emphasize

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Answer: Long-tem implications of the change on the wider community

Q51: In high power distance cultures

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Answer: change tends to be implemented top down.

Q52: In feminine cultures leaders need to emphasize

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Answer: the impact of change on quality of life.

Q53: The three stages of the change process are

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Answer: unfreezing, adjustment, and refreezing.

Q54: The five stages of the coping cycle are (in order)

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Answer: Denial, defence, discarding, adaptation, internalization

Q55: Dunphy and Stace (1993) identified

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Answer: Four styles of change management

Q56: What is NOT one of the five stages of the negotiation process

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Answer: Communication

Q57: Transformational change is often carried out

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Answer: top down.

Q58: Process innovation refers to

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Answer: the implementation of a new or improved production method.

Q59: Innovation can help to provide a temporary competitive advantage when

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Answer: barriers to imitation are low and intellectual property rights are difficult to enforce.

Q60: Following establishment of a dominant design in the product life cycle, what would you expect to happen

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Answer: Emphasis on process innovation rather than product innovation.

Q61: Established firms relative to new firms are better at

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Answer: innovation which is competence-enhancing.

Q62: In which markets are network effects likely

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Answer: All of the above

Q63: Which of the following are valuable in a standards war

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Answer: Early mover advantage

Q64: The fundamental challenge of knowledge transfer in multinational firms is

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Answer: transferring tacit knowledge across borders.

Q65: What potential advantages can be gained from involving overseas subsidiaries in R&D activities

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Answer: Local subsidiaries offer financial advantages as well as access to local markets, technical knowledge and skills.

Q66: Outsourcing of innovation globally is more likely where

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Answer: Innovations are autonomous

Q67: All definitions of Corporate Social Responsibility recognize that

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Answer: companies have a responsibility for their impact on society and environment.

Q68: Who said that the “only one social responsibility of business is to increase profits”

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Answer: Milton Friedman

Q69: What is the main characteristic of the stakeholder approach

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Answer: The idea that many different groups have a legitimate interest in the corporation

Q70: What are the four generic strategies of social responsiveness

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Answer: Reaction, Defence, Accommodation, Proaction

Q71: Michael Porter and Mark Kramer said that

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Answer: Social responsibility can help firms to discover future business opportunities.

Q72: Which of the following is NOT an example of a genuine business innovation

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Answer: Charitable donation to an ecological organization

Q73: Opportunities for social innovation are greatest when

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Answer: CSR is aligned with a firm’s core skills and capabilities.

Q74: What are the three levels of innovation

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Answer: In-market innovation, new market creation, leadership

Q75: Which of the following is an example of new market creation

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Answer: Creation of microfinance services to poor creditors by a bank.

Q76: What is a key obstacle to the success of non-traditional partnerships

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Answer: Lack of trust between partners

Q77: Online marketing can be defined as

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Answer: The use of Internet and related digital information and communications technologies to achieve marketing objectives

Q78: Effective online marketers requires the following combination

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Answer: IT and Marketing competences to achieve customer satisfaction

Q79: The main consumer concerns that restricted the rate of internet adoption were

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Answer: Security, trust and privacy issues

Q80: An organisation’s web site plays an increasingly crucial role in

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Answer: Multi-channel marketing

Q81: The convenience provided by the Internet is important for the following ‘environmental’ reasons

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Answer: Socio-economic

Q82: The Internet has resulted in a fundamental shift in

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Answer: Greater consumer power and knowledge

Q83: An Internet champion is needed to change and shape

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Answer: The corporate culture

Q84: For multi-channel marketers, the online environment should reinforce

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Answer: Consistent brand values across all channels

Q85: Political influence has been important in developing

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Answer: A country’s e-readiness

Q86: A well designed web site can communicate effectively with its

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Answer: Stakeholders

Q87: 70 – 80% of early online business transactions were conducted in the

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Answer: B2B sector

Q88: Compared to dotcom companies, clicks and mortar operations had the advantage of

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Answer: An established brand presence

Q89: The main reason for the Boxman.com collapse was

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Answer: Over-extending the operation through a multi-country launch

Q90: eBay is an example of which type of business model according to Timmers

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Answer: e-Auctions

Q91: Value Chain Service Providers offer

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Answer: Specialist services or functions within the value chain

Q92: Search engines play a key role in which online selling phase

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Answer: Pre-Sale Phase

Q93: Manufacturers of Personal Computers who sell ‘direct’ to consumers utilize which business model

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Answer: Manufacturing Model

Q94: Online information brokers reflect a process of

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Answer: Reintermediation

Q95: With regard to de Kare Silver’s strategic options, many UK financial institutions adopted which route

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Answer: ‘Set up as a separate business’

Q96: Online fulfillment tracking systems provide customers with

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Answer: Real time transparency

Q97: The Napkin Model of the early Internet boom period was attributed to

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Answer: Dotcom entrepreneurs and tycoons

Q98: Web Metrics provides a vital role in which phase of The Strategic Marketing Cycle

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Answer: Control Phase

Q99: Technologically inspired change drives

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Answer: Organisational restructuring either by department or across the organisation

Q100: A web site should be designed for

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Answer: Your most valuable customer with high lifetime values