Generic selectors
Exact matches only
Search in title
Search in content
Search in posts
Search in pages
Filter by Categories
nmims post
Objective Type Set
Online MCQ Assignment
Question Solution
Solved Question
Uncategorized

Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. Which of the following statement is true for an instrumentational amplifier?
a) the input resistance of both the inputs is very high and does not change as the gain is varied
b) the input resistance of both the inputs is very low and does not change as the gain is varied
c) the input resistance of both the inputs is very high and does change as the gain is varied
d) the input resistance of both the inputs is very low and does change as the gain is varied

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The input resistance of both the inputs is very high and does not change as the gain is varied in and instruementational amplifier. Voltage gain from differential input (V1– V2) to single ended output, is set by one resistor. V0 does not depend on common-mode voltage, but only on their difference.

2. Which of the following is not the property of instrumentational amplifier?
a) Extremely high input impedance
b) Low bias and offset currents
c) High slew rate
d) Very low CMRR

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Instrumentational amplifiers have very high CMRR. The instrumentation amplifier offers the following advantages for its applications in the biomedical field. Some of the are like extremely high input impedance, low bias and offset currents, high slew rate.

3. DC amplifiers are employed with _______ feedback type.
a) positive
b) negative
c) depends on the application
d) can be any positive or negative does’t matter

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] DC amplifiers are generally of the negative feedback type. They are used for medium gain applications down to about 1 mV signal levels for full scale. They are not practical for very low level applications because of dc drift and poor common-mode rejection capabilities.

4. CMRR is measured in ___________
a) v/s
b) dB
c) dB/s
d) dB/ms

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] CMRR is an important specification referred to the differential amplifier and is normally expressed as decibels. The ability of the amplifier to reject common voltages on its two input leads is known as common-mode rejection. It is specified as the ratio of common-mode input to differential input to elicit the same response.

5. The carrier amplifier consists of an oscillator and a capacitance coupled amplifier.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The carrier amplifier consists of an oscillator and a capacitance coupled amplifier. The oscillator is used to energize the transducer with an alternating carrier voltage. The transducers, which require ac excitation, are those whose impedance is not purely resistive.

6. Electromagnetic coupling cannot be reduced by _____
a) shielding
b) wire twisting
c) multiple grounding
d) common grounding

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Having multiple grounds in a single circuit increases the electromagnetic coupling effect by producing ground loop which may generate so much noise that it may completely obscure the useful signal. Thus, electromagnetic coupling is reduced by shielding, wire twisting and proper grounding which provide a balanced signal pair with satisfactory noise rejection characteristics.

7. Which of the following amplifier is employed with resistive transducers which require an external source of excitation?
a) differential amplifier
b) ac coupled amplifier
c) carrier amplifier
d) dc bridge amplifier

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] DC bridge amplifiersare employed with resistive transducers which require an external source of excitation. Essentially, the amplifier comprises of a stable dc excitation source, a bridge balance and calibration unit, a high gain differential dc amplifier and a dc output amplifier. They can be used as conventional dc high gain amplifiers and offer operating simplicity and high frequency response.

8. Which on the following is not a type of isolation amplifier?
a) capactively coupled isolation amplifiers
b) optically isolated isolation amplifiers
c) resistive coupled isolation amplifiers
d) transformer type isolation amplifiers

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] There is nothing such as the resistive coupled isolation amplifiers.All the other three types are in common use, though the transformer isolation amplifier is more popular. Opto-coupled amplifier uses a minimum number of components and is cost effective, followed by the transformer coupled amplifier. The capacitor coupled amplifier is the most expensive.

9. The isolation includes different supply voltage sources and different grounds on each side of the isolation barrier.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] True. The isolation includes different supply voltage sources and different grounds on each side of the isolation barrier. Three methods are used in the design of isolation amplifiers: (i) transformer isolation (ii) optical isolation (iii) capacitive isolation. Isolation amplifiers are commonly used for providing protection against leakage currents.

10. _________ are commonly used for providing protection against leakage currents.
a) Isolation amplifiers
b) Differential amplifiers
c) Instrumentational amplifiers
c) Inverting amplifiers

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Isolation amplifiers are commonly used for providing protection against leakage currents. They break the ohmic continuity of electric signals between the input and output of the amplifier. The isolation includes different supply voltage sources and different grounds on each side of the isolation barrier.

Set 2

1. Leucocytes are in the shape of ________
a) sphere
b) Cube
c) hollow
d) cuboid

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Leucocytes are in the shape of sphere. Leucocytes have a nucleus. They live for seven to fourteen days and there is a rapid turn over, with constant destruction and replacement. There are normally 5000–10,000 white cells per cubic mm of blood but their number varies during the day.

2. What should be the frequency response of the amplifiers that are used for the amplification purpose of the input signal in medical devices?.
a) high frequency response
b) low frequency response
c) frequency response has no role to play in it
d) average frequency response

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The response should be down to less than one hertz which is a very frequent requirement. The bioelectric signals in medical science contains components of extremely low frequency. Thus the amplifiers must also have a low frequency response.

3. Leucocytes are not responsible for the formation of the defence mechanism of the body that fights against infection.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] It is False. Leucocytes form the defence mechanism of the body against infection. The number and proportion of these types of leucocytes may vary widely in response to various disease conditions. They are of two main types: the neutrophils and the lymphocytes. Neutrophils ingest bacteria and lymphocytes are concerned with immunological response.

4. To achieve the ______________ required for medical applications, the amplifier must have large values of coupling capacitance.
a) random frequency response
b) high frequency response
c) average frequency response
d) low frequency response

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] In all RC-coupled amplifiers, low frequency response is limited by reluctance of the coupling capacitors. The response should be down to less than one hertz which is a very frequent requirement. To achieve the low frequency response required for medical applications, the amplifier must have large values of coupling capacitance.

5. Neutrophils are bigger than the red cells .
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] It is True. Neutrophils are nearly twice as big as the red cells.Lymphocytes are of the same size as the red cells but contain a large density staining nucleus and no granules. Neutrophils contain both a nucleus divided into several lobes and granules in their protoplasm.

6. High pass filter amplifies frequency
a) above certain value
b) below certain value
c) above and below certain value
d) at certain value

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] High pass filter amplifies signal above a certain frequency. Band pass filter amplifies frequencies with in a certain band. Band stop filter amplifies all the frequencies except those in a certain band. Low pass filter amplifies signals below a certain frequency.

7. Mean Platelet Volume is the ratio of the ___________ and is expressed in femolitres.
a) integrated platelet volume to the platelet count
b) integrated platelet volume to the WBC count
c) integrated RBC volume to the platelet count
d) integrated platelet volume to the RBC count

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Mean Platelet Volume (MPV) is the ratio of the integrated platelet volume to the platelet count and is expressed in femolitres. Platelet Distribution Width is related to the size range covered by those platelets lying between the sixteenth and eighty fourth percentile. Red Cell Distribution Width is a numerical expression of the width of the size distribution of red cells.

8. Unit of Mean Platelet Volume is expressed in?
a) millilitres
b) femolitres
c) picolitres
d) decilitres.

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Unit of Mean Platelet Volume is expressed in femolitres. 1f/l = 10–15 . 1 litre of blood contains 0.45 litres of red cells. Mean Platelet Volume (MPV) is the ratio of the integrated platelet volume to the platelet count and is expressed in femolitres.

9. Low pass filter amplifies signals below a certain frequency.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] It is true. Low pass filter amplifies signals below a certain frequency. Band stop filter amplifies all the frequencies except those in a certain band. High pass filter amplifies signal above a certain frequency. Band pass filter amplifies frequencies with in a certain band.

10. _______ is the percentage of the total specimen volume occupied by the platelets.
a) Mean Platelet Volume
b) Plateletcrit
c) Red Cell Distribution Width
d) Platelet Distribution Width

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Plateletcrit is the percentage of the total specimen volume occupied by the platelets. Red Cell Distribution Width is a numerical expression of the width of the size distribution of red cells. Mean Platelet Volume is the ratio of the integrated platelet volume to the platelet count and is expressed in femolitres.

11. Modern instrument use ________ for intravascular oximetry?
a) photodiode
b) red and infrared LED’s
c) optical fibre
d) phototransistor

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] For intravascular oximetry, modern instruments make use of optical fibres to guide the light signal inside the vessel and the reflected light from the red blood cells back to the light detector.

12. Optical fiber sensors are immune to electromagnetic disturbances.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] It is True. Optical fiber sensors are electrically passive and consequently immune to electromagnetic disturbances. They can be miniaturized and are most suitable for telemetry applications. They are geometrically flexible and corrosion resistant.

13. Currently available oximeters utilize __________ wavelengths.
a) Equal to 2
b) Cannot be determined
c) Less than 2
d) More than 2

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Currently available fiber-optic oximeters utilize more than two wavelengths to adjust for haematocrit variation. For estimating SO2, usually the reflectance at two wavelengths, one in the red and the other in the near infrared regions, are used.

14. Mix venous saturation is measured by __________
a) Ear Oximeter
b) Intravascular Oximeter
c) Skin Reflectance Oximeter
d) Pulse Oximeter

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Mixed venous saturation varies in reflecting the changes of oxygen saturation, cardiac output, haematocrit or haemoglobin content and oxygen consumption. Intravasacular oximeters are normally used to measure mixed venous saturation, from which the status of the circulatory system can be deduced.

15. Which of the following is correct expression for RDW index?
a) [ ( 20th – 80th ) Percentile Volume / ( 20th – 80th ) Percentile Volume ] X 100 X K
b) [ ( 20th – 80th ) Percentile Volume / ( 20th + 80th ) Percentile Volume ] X 100 X K
c) [ ( 20th + 80th ) Percentile Volume / ( 20th – 80th) Percentile Volume ] X 100 X K
d) [ ( 20th + 80th ) Percentile Volume / ( 20th + 80th) Percentile Volume ] X 100 X K

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The total erythrocyte count is scanned by a continuously variable thresholding circuit. The RDW index is expressed by the following equation [ ( 20th – 80th ) Percentile Volume / ( 20th + 80th ) Percentile Volume ] X 100 X K. It is a numerical expression of the width of the size distribution of red cells. It is derived by analog computation. The upper threshold is moved progressively lower from a level equivalent to 360 femolitres until 20 per cent of all erythrocytes present have a size above a certain value.

Set 3

1. The tympanic membrane separates the ear canal from the _____________
a) upper ear cavity
b) lower ear cavity
c) middle ear cavity
d) inner ear cavity

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The tympanic membrane separates the ear canal from the middle ear cavity. The pinna scatters acoustic waves so that some of the scattered energy enters the auditory canal and pushes against the tympanic membrane during a wave of compression. The distance membrane moves is a function of the force and velocity with which the air molecules strike it and is, therefore, related to the loudness of sound.

2. The middle ear is exposed to atmospheric pressure only through the _______
a) eustachian tube
b) tympanic membrane
c) pinna
d) auditory nerve

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The middle ear is exposed to atmospheric pressure only through the eustachian tube, which connects it to the pharynx and nose or mouth. The sound energy from the tympanic membrane is transmitted through the cavity of the middle ear, to the receptor cells in the inner ear, which are surrounded by fluid. The tympanic membrane separates the ear canal from the middle ear cavity.

3. The major function of the middle ear is ____________
a) to transfer movements of the air in the outer ear to the cochlea
b) to transfer movements of the air in the outer ear to the auditory nerves
c) to transfer movements of the air in the outer ear to the tympanic membrane
d) to transfer movements of the air in the outer ear to the fluid-filled chambers of the inner ear

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Thus, the major function of the middle ear is to transfer movements of the air in the outer ear to the fluid-filled chambers of the inner ear. A chain of three small, middle ear bones couple the tympanic membrane to a membrane covered opening, called the oval window. The total force on the oval window is the same as that on the tympanic membrane.

4. The human ear responses to vibrations ranging from ___________
a) 20KHz – 20MHz
b) 2KHz – 20MHz
c) 20Hz – 20KHz
d) 2Hz – 2KHz

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The human ear responds to vibrations ranging from 20 to 20,000 Hz. The waves of speech and many other common sounds are not of single frequency but are complex waves made up of several frequencies of vibration. The number of sound frequencies in addition to the fundamental tone, i.e. the degree of purity of the sound wave is related to the quality or timbre of the sound. The human ear can in fact, distinguish some 400,000 different sounds.

5. Name the bone that rests upon the lower end of the cochlea and passes the vibrations directly into the fluid within.
a) malleus
b) stapes
c) incus
d) hammer

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] One of the bones, called the stapes, rests upon the lower end of the cochlea and passes the vibrations directly into the fluid within. A chain of three small, middle ear bones couple the tympanic membrane to a membrane covered opening, called the oval window. The total force on the oval window is the same as that on the tympanic membrane.

6. Air conduction, by definition, is the transmission of sound through the external and middle ear to the internal ear.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] It is true. Air conduction, by definition, is the transmission of sound through the external and middle ear to the internal ear. Bone conduction, on the other hand, refers to transmission of sound to the internal ear mediated by mechanical vibration of the cranial bones and soft tissues. Clinical observation has shown that hard-of-hearing patients with middle ear disease usually have normal hearing by bone conduction, whereas patients with inner ear involvement have decreased or diminished bone-conduction.

7. The hearing threshold is an invariable fixed intensity above which sound is always heard and below which sound is never heard.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Its is False. The hearing threshold is not an invariable fixed intensity above which sound is always heard and below which sound is never heard. In fact, the sensitivity of the auditory mechanism is found to vary with interactions between certain physiological, psychological and physical factors. Therefore, the threshold may be regarded as an intensity range within which sound stimuli at or near the statistically determined threshold may or may not be perceived.

8. Unit of sound intensity ________
a) joules per sq. cm
b) watt per sq. cm
c) joules per cm
d) watt per cm

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Sound intensity may be defined as the amount of energy flow per unit time through a unit area perpendicular to the direction of energy flow. It is expressed as watts per square centimetre. However, the common receivers of sound are microphones, which do not measure sound intensity directly.

9. Sound intensity is proportional to the _________ of sound pressure
a) cube
b) square
c) inverse square
d) inverse square root

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Sound intensity is proportional to the square of sound pressure. Sound pressure, for a given sinusoidal event, is related linearly to both amplitude and frequency. Sound intensity may be defined as the amount of energy flow per unit time through a unit area perpendicular to the direction of energy flow.

10. Decibel expresses the logarithm of the ratio between two sound _________
a) intensities
b) powers
c) pressures
d) intensities, powers and pressures.

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Decibel expresses the logarithm of the ratio between two sound intensities, powers or sound pressures. The convenient unit for making such comparisons and to express the sound intensity and sound pressure data for all practical purposes, is the decibel (dB). The dB is 1/10 of a larger unit, the bell, named after Alexander Graham Bell.

11. What is the unit of dB?
a) watts per sq cm
b) dyne per sq cm
c) unit less
d) watts pr cm

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Since dB is merely a ratio, it is a dimensionless entity. Decibel expresses the logarithm of the ratio between two sound intensities, powers or sound pressures. Use of decibels as units for comparison of intensities help to avoid all mathematical calculations except algebraic addition or subtraction of small numbers. The transmission efficiency of any medium like air, a hearing aid or an amplifier is usually expressed in dB as a gain when the output is greater and as a loss, if less.

12. If I1 and I2 are two intensities in watts per square centimetre, then the number of decibels with which they are related can be expressed as _________
a) N = 10 log I1/I2
b) N = 10 log I2/I1
c) N = -10 log I1/I2
d) N = log I1/I2

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] If I1 and I2 are two intensities in watts per square centimetre, then the number of decibels with which they are related can be expressed as: N = 10 log I1/I2. Attenuation is commonly expressed in negative dB numbers whereas amplification is given in positive dB numbers. Use of decibels as units for comparison of intensities help to avoid all mathematical calculations except algebraic addition or subtraction of small numbers. The transmission efficiency of any medium like air, a hearing aid or an amplifier is usually expressed in dB as a gain when the output is greater and as a loss, if less.

13. __________ is a specialized equipment, which is used for the identification of hearing loss in individuals.
a) gaugemeter
b) tachometer
c) manometer
d) audiometer

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] An audiometer is a specialized equipment, which is used for the identification of hearing loss in individuals, and the quantitative determination of the degree and nature of such a loss. Both frequency and output are adjustable over the audio range. The instrument is also provided with a calibrated noise source and bone-conductor vibrator.. It is essentially an oscillator driving a pair of headphones and is calibrated in terms of frequency and acoustic output.

14. Which threshold of hearing is measured by a pure-tone audiometer ?
a) air-conduction thresholds of hearing
b) bone-conduction thresholds of hearing
c) speech reception thresholds for diagnostic purposes
d) air-conduction and bone-conduction thresholds of hearing

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] A pure-tone audiometer is used primarily to obtain air-conduction and bone-conduction thresholds of hearing. Audiometers may be divided into two main groups on the basis of the type of stimulus they provide to elicit auditory response: pure-tone audiometers and speech audiometers. These thresholds are helpful in the diagnosis of hearing loss.

15. Speech audiometers are normally used to determine ______________
a) speech reception thresholds for diagnostic purposes
b) air-conduction and bone-conduction thresholds of hearing
c) bone-conduction thresholds of hearing
d) air-conduction thresholds of hearing

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Speech audiometers are normally used to determine speech reception thresholds for diagnostic purposes and to assess and evaluate the performance of hearing aids. A pure-tone audiometer is used primarily to obtain air-conduction and bone-conduction thresholds of hearing.These thresholds are helpful in the diagnosis of hearing loss. Pure-tone screening tests are employed extensively in industrial and school hearing conservation programmes.

Set 4

1. Which of the following is not the electrolyte?
a) Bicarbonate
b) Potassium
c) Magnesium
d) Sodium

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] For instance, the group of important anions and cations of the blood plasma (electrolytes) like sodium, potassium, chloride and bicarbonate, which together with serum urea form a related set of tests— performed on patients with electrolyte disturbances.

2. The blood pressure within the glumerular capillaries is _________ of mercury.
a) 80 mm
b) 70-80 mm
c) 90 mm
d) 70-90 mm

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The renal arteries carry blood at a very high pressure from the aorta into the glomerular capillary tuft. The blood pressure within the glomerular capillaries is 70–90 mm of mercury. The blood flow through the capillary tuft is controlled by the state of contraction of the muscle of the arteriole leading to the tuft.

3. In the sampling unit, when it is in its earlier form consisted of a circular turntable carrying around its rim 40 disposable __________ of 2 ml capacity.
a) polyvinyl cups
b) polythene cups
c) polyester cups
d) polystyrene cups

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The unit in its earlier form consisted of a circular turntable carrying around its rim 40 disposable polystyrene cups of 2 ml capacity. The sample plate carrying these cups rotates at a predetermined speed. The movement of the turntable is synchronized with the movements of a sampling crook.

4. What is the ratio of the sampling time to wash time?
a) 1:2
b) 3:1
c) 2:1
d) 1:3

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Between each sampling, the crook enters a receptacle of water or other suitable wash fluid, to reduce cross-contamination of one sample with another. The ratio of sampling time to wash time is normally 2:1.

5. In the sampling control, one complete rotation of the plate thus presents _______
a) 35 samples
b) 40 samples
c) 20 samples
d) 30 samples

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The plate rotates a distance sufficient to allow the tube, when it next moves down, to dip into the next cup. One complete rotation of the plate thus presents 40 samples. As the sample plate completes a cycle, a switch is operated, which stops the rotating action of the plate and the sampling action of the sample probe. The sampling rate can be adjusted to 20, 40 or 60 per hour.

6. In the sampler, the range of the sample size is from _______
a) 0.1 to 8.5 ml
b) 1 to 8.5 ml
c) 0.85 to 0.1 ml
d) 8.5 to 10 ml

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] With this sampler, the sample size may range from 0.1 to 8.5 ml. It utilizes cups of sizes 0.5, 2, 3 and 10 ml. The sample plate is kept covered to prevent evaporation, which may sometimes lead to errors up to 5%. Sampling and washing periods are controlled by a programming cam.

7. Which cams are used in the earlier modules of auto-analyzers to initiate and control sample aspiration and wash cycles?
a) Electrical cams
b) Digital cams
c) Analog cams
d) Mechanical cams

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Mechanical cams were used in the earlier modules of auto-analyzers to initiate and control sample aspiration and wash cycles. Modern systems use electronic timers to do the same function. These timers provide a greater flexibility in the control of the sample-to-wash ratios, which in turn allows flexibility in setting up parameters for analyses.

8. The function of the _________ is to continuously and simultaneously push fluids, air and gases through the analytical chain.
a) sampling unit
b) proportioning pump
c) manifold
d) dialyzer

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The function of the proportioning pump is to continuously and simultaneously push fluids, air and gases through the analytical chain. In fact, it is the heart of the automatic analysis system.

9. In the proportioning pump, two speed pump has a non-synchronous _____ rpm motor.
a) 10 rpm
b) 30 rpm
c) 45 rpm
d) 15 rpm

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Proportioning pumps are available either for single-speed or for two-speed operations. The single-speed pump has the capacitor synchronous gear head utilizing 10 rpm output shaft at 50 Hz. The two-speed pump has a non-synchronous 45 rpm motor.

10. ________ is not the part of the manifold.
a) Transmission tubing
b) Pump tubes
c) Platter
d) Plastic tubes

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] A manifold mainly consists of a platter, pump tubes, coils, transmission tubing, fittings and connections. A separate manifold is required for each determination and the change can be effected within a few minutes. The pump tubing and the connected coils are placed on a manifold platter, which keeps them in proper order for each test.

Set 5

1. _____________ is common engineering term and refers to its function to control a process.
a) Open-loop
b) Feedback
c) Reaction
d) Closed-loop

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Feedback is a common engineering term and refers to its function to control a process. When this concept is applied to biological processes within the body, it is known as biofeedback. Biofeedback is a means for gaining control of the body processes to create a specially required psychological state so as to increase relaxation, relieve pain and develop healthier and more comfortable life patterns.

2. Biofeedback training is an educational process for learning body skills.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] True, Biofeedback training is an educational process for learning specialized mind/body skills as through practice, one learns to recognize physiological responses and to control them rather than having them control us. The objective of biofeedback training is to gain self-regulatory skills which help to adjust the activity in various systems to optimal levels.

3. Which of the following instrument is used for measuring the average activity of sweat glands?
a) EOG
b) ECG
c) GSR
d) PCG

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Electrodermal activity is measured in two ways: BSR (basal skin response) and GSR (galvanic skin response) is a measure of the average activity of the sweat glands and is a measure of the phasic activity (the high and low points) of these glands.

4. BSR(Basal skin response) gives _____________
a) activity of sweat glands
b) baseline value of skin resistance
c) activity of endrocine glands
d) baseline value of breathing

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] BSR (basal skin response) and GSR (galvanic skin response) is a measure of the average activity of the sweat glands and is a measure of the phasic activity (the high and low points) of these glands. BSR gives the baseline value of the skin resistance where as GSR is due to the activity of the sweat glands.

5. GSR(Galvanic skin response) gives ________________
a) activity of sweat glands
b) baseline value of skin resistance
c) activity of endrocine glands
d) baseline value of breathing

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] BSR (basal skin response) and GSR (galvanic skin response) is a measure of the average activity of the sweat glands and is a measure of the phasic activity (the high and low points) of these glands. BSR gives the baseline value of the skin resistance where as GSR is due to the activity of the sweat glands.

6. At which place GSR is measured?
a) palms of hand
b) nose
c) eye
d) teeth

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] BSR gives the baseline value of the skin resistance where as GSR is due to the activity of the sweat glands. The GSR is measured most conveniently at the palms of the hand, where the body has the highest concentration of sweat glands. The measurement is made using a dc current source.

7. What is the used to measure and record BSR and GSR?
a) Tape recorder
b) Amplifier
c) Silver-Silver electrode
d) Piezoelectric device

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The GSR is measured most conveniently at the palms of the hand, where the body has the highest concentration of sweat glands. The measurement is made using a dc current source. Silver-silver electrodes are used to measure and record the BSR and GSR.

8. The BSR output is connected to RC network with time constant of _________________ seconds.
a) 1 to 3
b) 3 to 5
c) 5 to 7
d) 7 to 9

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Silver-silver electrodes are used to measure and record the BSR and GSR. The BSR output is connected to an RC network with a time constant of 3 to 5 seconds which enables the measurement of GSR as a change of the skin resistance.

9. Biofeedback instrumentation for the measurement of EMG,temperature and pulse/heart rate.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] True, Biofeedback instrumentation for the measurement of EMG, temperature and pulse/heart rate as it is not different from other instruments used for the measurement of physiological variables. Transducers and amplifiers are employed to measure the variable that is to be controlled by the feedback process.

10. What is employed to measure the variable that is to be controlled by feedback process?
a) Transducers
b) Sensing device
c) Tape recorder
d) Piezo-electric device

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Biofeedback instrumentation for the measurement of EMG, temperature and pulse/heart rate is not different from other instruments used for the measurement of physiological variables. Transducers and amplifiers are employed to measure the variable that is to be controlled by the feedback process.