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Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. Where are the electrodes placed for recording foetal electrocardiogram?
a) heart
b) abdomen
c) brain
d) veins

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Foetal electrocardiogram is recorded by suitably placing the electrodes on the mother’s abdomen and recording the combined maternal and foetal ECG. The maximum amplitude of FECG (R wave) recorded during pregnancy is about 100 to 300 mV. This magnitude is much smaller than in the typical adult ECG which is about 1 mV in the standard lead connection.

2. What is the maximum amplitude of FECG recorded during pregnancy?
a) 100 to 300 mV
b) 300 to 500 mV
c) 500 to 700 mV
d) 700 to 900 mV

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Foetal electrocardiogram is recorded by suitably placing the electrodes on the mother’s abdomen and recording the combined maternal and foetal ECG. The maximum amplitude of FECG (R wave) recorded during pregnancy is about 100 to 300 mV. This magnitude is much smaller than in the typical adult ECG which is about 1 mV in the standard lead connection.

3. The foetus heart rate is approximately _______ time/s of normal adult foetal heart rate .
a) one
b) two
c) three
d) four

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The foetal heart rate is computed from the foetal ECG by appropriately shaping the foetal QRS wave. The foetus heart rate is approximately twice that of the normal adult ranging approximately from 110 to 180 bpm. The main problem in processing the foetal heart signals is the poor SNR.

4. Which of the following is periodic noise source in the foetal ECG signal from maternal abdomen?
a) Amplifier input noise
b) Maternal Muscle noise
c) Fluctuations in electrode polarization potential
d) Maternal ECG

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The major sources of noise in the foetal ECG signal recorded from the maternal abdomen are (i) amplifier input noise, (ii) maternal muscle noise (EMG), (iii) fluctuations in electrode polarization potential, and (iv) maternal ECG. For practical purposes, the first three of these sources can be considered as random whereas the maternal ECG is a periodic noise source.

5. What is magnitude of ECG for typical adult in standard lead connnection ?
a) 1 mV
b) 2 mV
c) 3 mV
d) 4 mV

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Foetal electrocardiogram is recorded by suitably placing the electrodes on the mother’s abdomen and recording the combined maternal and foetal ECG. The maximum amplitude of FECG (R wave) recorded during pregnancy is about 100 to 300 mV. This magnitude is much smaller than in the typical adult ECG which is about 1 mV in the standard lead connection.

6. Which of the following technique is used to measure foetal heart rate?
a) ECG
b) FECG
c) PCG
d) VCG

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Abdominal FECG processing circuit is used for computing foetal heart rate. After proper placement of the electrodes, the signals are amplified in a preamplifier which provides a very high input impedance (100 MW) and a high sensitivity and good common mode rejection ratio (up to 120 dB).

7. A cardioscope differ in one important aspects as compared to the conventional instrument.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] False, Cardioscope differ in two important aspects as compared to the conventional instrument. These are slower sweep speeds and a long persistence screen. The slow sweep speed necessitates the use of a long persistence screen so as to enable a convenient observation of the waveform.

8. What is CMRR of Foetal electrocardiogram?
a) 0-150 dB
b) 0- 130 dB
c) 0-120 dB
d) 0-200 dB

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Abdominal FECG processing circuit is used for computing foetal heart rate. After proper placement of the electrodes, the signals are amplified in a preamplifier which provides a very high input impedance (100 MW) and a high sensitivity and good common mode rejection ratio (up to 120 dB).

9. What is responsible for most of common-mode interfering signal?
a) Preamplifier
b) Notch Filter
c) Power Line Hum
d) Band Pass Filter

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] A sizable common-mode signal manages to pass through the input amplifier, a circumstance to be expected whenever electrodes spaced a few centimetres apart are attached to the human body in a hospital environment. Power line hum is responsible for most of the common-mode interfering signal. This is suppressed by a notch filter following the input amplifier.

10. What is present in processing circuit for signal separation?
a) Preamplifier
b) Power Line Hum
c) Notch Filter
d) Band Pass Filter

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The signal path then splits into two channels: the maternal ECG channel or Mchannel and the foetal or F channel. Since the frequency spectrum of the foetal ECG differs somewhat from the maternal ECG, some initial signal separation is achieved by using the appropriate bandpass filtering in each channel.

11. The F channel has a _______ ms pulse generator that is triggered by the foetal ECG.
a) 5
b) 10
c) 20
d) 30

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The F channel has a 30 ms pulse generator that is triggered by the foetal ECG. It is inhibited, however, by the blanking pulse from the M channel, so it will not generate a pulse in response to the maternal ECG signal feeding through to the F channel.

12. Foetal ECG signal detected via electrodes placed on mother’s abdomen is complex and requires accertion of maternal signals for obtaining FHR.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] False,Foetal ECG signal detected via electrodes placed on the mother’s abdomen is complex and requires attenuation of maternal signals for obtaining FHR. Also, due to the overlapping of the foetal ECG with the maternal ECG, about 20% to 50% of the expected pulses may be missing.

13. AECG technique fails in those rare cases where the amniotic fluid fails to provide adequate electrical coupling from foetus to mother.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Clinical trials have shown that the AECG technique is usually effective in the most cases except in those rare cases where the amniotic fluid fails to provide adequate electrical coupling from foetus to mother. However, during labour, the uterine and abdominal wall electromyogram signals tend to obliterate the FECG signal, making FHR counting quite difficult. At present, the abdominal FECG, therefore, does not seem to offer a practical reliable means of FHR monitoring during labour and delivery.

14. What is delay time to establish a missing foetal trigger pulse by substitution logic?
a) 150 ms
b) 200 ms
c) 250 ms
d) 270 ms

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The substitution logic requires a delay time to establish a missing foetal trigger pulse. On the one hand, this delay has to be longer than the maximum permissible change in heart period (14 bpm change from 50–64 bpm = 262 ms) and on the other hand, it has to be shorter than the shortest period duration (216 bpm = 285.7 ms). It is thus kept as 270 ms.

15. What is range of FHR measurement due to substitution logic?
a) 0-200 bpm
b) 40-240 bpm
c) 20-220 bpm
d) 60-260 bpm

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The substitution logic requires a delay time to establish a missing foetal trigger pulse. It is thus kept as 270 ms. The range of FHR measurement is limited to 40–240 bpm because of the substitution logic. Thereafter, the output of logic circuits go to standard heart rate computing circuits.

Set 2

1. Which of the following physiological parameter is most difficult to measure accurately?
a) Blood pressure
b) Blood Flow
c) Blood Volume
d) Skin color

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Blood flow is one of the most important physiological parameters and also one of the most difficult to measure accurately. This is because instruments for measuring the flow through blood vessels within the body have to meet certain stringent specifications; e.g. sensitivity and stability requirements depend upon the magnitude of flow, location and the diameter of the individual vessels.

2. Which of the following instrument is most commonly used for measurement of blood flow?
a) NMR Blood Flowmeter
b) Ultrasonic Blood Flowmeter
c) Electromagnetic Blood Flowmeter
d) Laser Doppler Blood Flowmeter

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The most commonly used instrument for the measurement of blood flow is of the electromagnetic type. With this type of instrument, blood flow can be measured in intact blood vessels without cannulation and under conditions which would otherwise be impossible. However, this method requires that the blood vessel be exposed so that the flow head or the measuring probe can be put across it.

3. Magnitude of voltage picked up is denoted as e = CHVd ,where H is ___________
a) velocity of blood flow
b) strength of magnetic field
c) diameter of blood vessel
d) constant of proprtionality

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The magnitude of the voltage picked up is directly proportional to the strength of the magnetic field, the diameter of the blood vessel and the velocity of blood flow, i.e. e = CHVd ,where e = induced voltage,H = strength of the magnetic field,V = velocity of blood flow,d = diameter of the blood vessel and C = constant of proportionality.

4. Magnitude of voltage picked up is denoted as e = CHVd ,where C is __________
a) velocity of blood flow
b) strength of magnetic field
c) diameter of blood vessel
d) constant of proprtionality

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The magnitude of the voltage picked up is directly proportional to the strength of the magnetic field, the diameter of the blood vessel and the velocity of blood flow, i.e. e = CHVd ,where e = induced voltage,H = strength of the magnetic field,V = velocity of blood flow,d = diameter of the blood vessel and C = constant of proportionality.

5. The induced emf is picked by point electrodes made from ______ in electromagnetic blood flowmeter.
a) copper
b) graphite
c) platinium
d) copper tungsten

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] In actual practice, the electromagnetic flowmeter transducer (Wyatt, 1984) is a tube of non-magnetic material to ensure that the magnetic flux does not bypass the flowing liquid and go into the walls of the tube. The tube is made of a conducting material and generally has an insulating lining to prevent short circuiting of the induced emf. The induced emf is picked up by point electrodes made from stainless steel or platinum.

6. What is the external diameter of flow heads?
a) 0.5 mm
b) 1 mm
c) 1.5 mm
d) 2 mm

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The flow head contains a slot through which the intact blood vessel can be inserted to make a snug fit. Several probes of different sizes must therefore accompany the flowmeter to match the full range of sizes of the blood vessels which have various diameters. It is naturally more difficult to construct flow heads suitable for use with very small blood vessels. However, flow heads having as small as 1 mm external diameter have been reported in literature.

7. The operating principle underlying all electromagnetic type flowmeters is based upon Kirchoff’s law.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] False, The operating principle underlying all electromagnetic type flowmeters is based upon Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction which states that when a conductor is moved at right angles through a magnetic field in a direction at right angles both to the magnetic field and its length, an emf is induced in the conductor. In the flowmeter, an electromagnetic assembly provides the magnetic field placed at right angles to the blood vessel in which the flow is to be measured.

8. The average flow velocity appears to be _______ cm/s in arteries.
a) 5 to 10
b) 10 to 12
c) 12 to 18
d) 20 to 25

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The flow-induced voltage of an electromagnetic flowmeter is, within certain limitations, proportional to the velocity of the flow. This velocity is the average across the flow stream with an axis symmetric velocity profile. The average flow velocity appears to be 20 to 25 cm/s in arteries and 10 to 12 cm/s in veins.

9. What is the average flow velocity in veins?
a) 5 to 10 cm/s
b) 10 to 12 cm/s
c) 12 to 18 cm/s
d) 20 to 25 cm/s

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The flow-induced voltage of an electromagnetic flowmeter is, within certain limitations, proportional to the velocity of the flow. This velocity is the average across the flow stream with an axis symmetric velocity profile. The average flow velocity appears to be 20 to 25 cm/s in arteries and 10 to 12 cm/s in veins.

10. What is velocity for the cardiovascular system taken for designing the probe?
a) 5 cm/s
b) 10 cm/s
c) 15 cm/s
d) 20 cm/s

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] For designing the probe, velocity for the cardiovascular system is taken as 15 cm/s. For non-cannulated probes, a uniform magnetic field over the measuring area is so selected that it has a convenient shape and the smallest size (Cunningham et al. 1983).

11. Iron cored electromagnets are used in probes having a diameter between ______
a) 0.1 to 1 mm
b) 1 to 8.2 mm
c) 8.2 to 10 mm
d) 10 to 15 mm

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Iron cored electromagnets are used in probes having a diameter between 1 to 8.2 mm, and air cored electromagnets are use in diameters above 8.2 mm. Cannulated probes for extracorporeal use canhave greater field strengths and magnet size as the constraint of small size is no longer present.

12. To protect probe from chemical attack, it must be encapsulated in a silicon rubber.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] True, To protect the probe from chemical attack, it must be encapsulated in a biologically inert material having a high electrical and chemical resistance, e.g. silicone rubber. The probes can generally be sterilized by chemical means. Probe calibration is carried out in 0.9% saline during manufacture and each probe is given a calibration factor that is engraved on the connector.

13. The cable from the transducer to instrument is sleeved with medical grade silicon rubber.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] True, the cable from the transducer to the instrument should comprise of a teflon insulated wire completely shielded with a tinned copper braid.The entire cable is sleeved with medical grade silicone rubber tubing and impregnated with silicone rubber to minimize leakage and electrical noise.

14. Air cored electromagnets are used in probes having a diameter _____
a) between 0.5 to 1 mm
b) between 1 to 2 mm
c) below 8.2 mm
d) above 8.2 mm

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Iron cored electromagnets are used in probes having a diameter between 1 to 8.2 mm, and air cored electromagnets are use in diameters above 8.2 mm. Cannulated probes for extracorporeal use canhave greater field strengths and magnet size as the constraint of small size is no longer present.

15. What is range of FHR measurement due to substitution logic?
a) 0-200 bpm
b) 40-240 bpm
c) 20-220 bpm
d) 60-260 bpm

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The substitution logic requires a delay time to establish a missing foetal trigger pulse. It is thus kept as 270 ms. The range of FHR measurement is limited to 40–240 bpm because of the substitution logic. Thereafter, the output of logic circuits go to standard heart rate computing circuits.

Set 3

1. Which of the following is not the electrolyte?
a) Bicarbonate
b) Potassium
c) Magnesium
d) Sodium

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] For instance, the group of important anions and cations of the blood plasma (electrolytes) like sodium, potassium, chloride and bicarbonate, which together with serum urea form a related set of tests— performed on patients with electrolyte disturbances.

2. The part of the automated system that shown in the figure is ____________
biomedical-instrumentation-questions-answers-aptitude-test-q2
a) Dialyzer
b) Pump
c) Recorder
d) Sampler

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The automated system consists of a group of modular instruments interconnected together by a manifold system and electrical systems. The sample to be analyzed is introduced into a stream of diluting liquid flowing in the narrow bore of a flexible plastic tube. The stages of the analytical reaction are completed by the successive combination of other flowing streams of liquids with the sample stream, by means of suitably shaped glass functions.

3. In the sampling unit, when it is in its earlier form consisted of a circular turntable carrying around its rim 40 disposable __________ of 2 ml capacity.
a) Polyvinyl cups
b) Polythene cups
c) Polyester cups
d) Polystyrene cups

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The unit in its earlier form consisted of a circular turntable carrying around its rim 40 disposable polystyrene cups of 2 ml capacity. The sample plate carrying these cups rotates at a predetermined speed. The movement of the turntable is synchronized with the movements of a sampling crook.

4. What is the ratio of the sampling time to wash time?
a) 1:2
b) 3:1
c) 2:1
d) 1:3

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Between each sampling, the crook enters a receptacle of water or other suitable wash fluid, to reduce cross-contamination of one sample with another. The ratio of sampling time to wash time is normally 2:1.

5. In the sampling control, one complete rotation of the plate thus presents _______
a) 35 samples
b) 40 samples
c) 20 samples
d) 30 samples

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The plate rotates a distance sufficient to allow the tube, when it next moves down, to dip into the next cup. One complete rotation of the plate thus presents 40 samples. As the sample plate completes a cycle, a switch is operated, which stops the rotating action of the plate and the sampling action of the sample probe. The sampling rate can be adjusted to 20, 40 or 60 per hour.

6. In the sampler, the range of the sample size is from ____________
a) 0.1 to 8.5 ml
b) 1 to 8.5 ml
c) 0.85 to 0.1 ml
d) 8.5 to 10 ml

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] With this sampler, the sample size may range from 0.1 to 8.5 ml. It utilizes cups of sizes 0.5, 2, 3 and 10 ml. The sample plate is kept covered to prevent evaporation, which may sometimes lead to errors up to 5%. Sampling and washing periods are controlled by a programming cam.

7. Which cams are used in the earlier modules of auto-analyzers to initiate and control sample aspiration and wash cycles?
a) Electrical cams
b) Digital cams
c) Analog cams
d) Mechanical cams

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Mechanical cams were used in the earlier modules of auto-analyzers to initiate and control sample aspiration and wash cycles. Modern systems use electronic timers to do the same function. These timers provide a greater flexibility in the control of the sample-to-wash ratios, which in turn allows flexibility in setting up parameters for analyses.

8. The function of the _________ is to continuously and simultaneously push fluids, air and gases through the analytical chain.
a) Sampling unit
b) Proportioning pump
c) Manifold
d) Dialyzer

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The function of the proportioning pump is to continuously and simultaneously push fluids, air and gases through the analytical chain. In fact, it is the heart of the automatic analysis system.

9. In the proportioning pump, two speed pump has a non-synchronous _____ rpm motor.
a) 10 rpm
b) 30 rpm
c) 45 rpm
d) 15 rpm

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Proportioning pumps are available either for single-speed or for two-speed operations. The single-speed pump has the capacitor synchronous gear head utilizing 10 rpm output shaft at 50 Hz. The two-speed pump has a non-synchronous 45 rpm motor.

10. Which of the following is not the part of the manifold?
a) Transmission tubing
b) Pump tubes
c) Platter
d) Plastic tubes

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] A manifold mainly consists of a platter, pump tubes, coils, transmission tubing, fittings and connections. A separate manifold is required for each determination and the change can be effected within a few minutes. The pump tubing and the connected coils are placed on a manifold platter, which keeps them in proper order for each test.

11. Which of the following is not the type of tubing?
a) Acidflex tubing
b) Glass tubing
c) Polypropylene tubing
d) Tygon

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Several other tubes are required to introduce reagents and to transport the specimen from one module to another. There are five types of such tubings. They are of varying sizes and are to be selected according to the requirements. These are: standard transmission tubing (Tygon), solvaflex tubing, acidflex tubing, polyethylene tubing and glass tubing.

12. There are two types of coils employed in the system,which are ____
a) Tygon coils and mixing coils
b) Mixing coils and tubing coils
c) Delay coils and tygon coils
d) Mixing coils and delay coils

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Two types of coils are employed in the system—mixing coils and delay coils. Coils are glass spirals of critical dimensions, in which the mixing liquids are inverted several times, so that complete mixing can result. Mixing coils are used to mix the sample and/or reagents. Delay coils are employed when a specimen must be delayed for the completion of a chemical reaction before reaching the colorimeter.

13. In phasing, if the cholesterol stream arrives at Y time, albumin must arrive at ______
a) Y + 5 s
b) Y + 10 s
c) Y + 15 s
d) Y + 20 s

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] With 12 tests to be recorded on each sample and a sampling rate of 60 samples per hour, it follows that 5 s are allowed to record each steady state plateau. The reaction streams in the 12 channels and up to four blank channels must, therefore, be phased to arrive at the colorimeter in waves 5 s apart. For example, if the cholesterol stream arrives at X time, calcium must arrive at X + 5 s, total protein at X + 10 s, albumin at X + 15 s, etc.

14. Which coils are used to permit the channels to enter the calorimeter in the proper sequence?
a) Mixing coils
b) Delay coils
c) Solvaflex coils
d) Phasing coils

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] In order to ensure a proper sequencing for the presentation of results, a number of devices have been provided to make this adjustment an extremely simple operation. Phasing coils are used to permit the channels to enter the colorimeter in the proper sequence.

15. Which module consists of a pair of Perspex plates?
a) The dialyzer module
b) The recorder module
c) The sampling module
d) Heating bath module

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] In analytical chemistry, it is often necessary to remove protein cells to obtain an interference-free analysis. This is accomplished by dialysis in the auto-analyzer. The dialyzer module consists of a pair of perspex plates, the mating surfaces of which are mirror grooved in a continuous channel, which goes in towards the centre, on itself and returns to the outside.

Set 4

1. Which is the most important physiological parameter monitored in intensive care unit?
a) temprature
b) heart rate
c) blood pressure
d) skin color

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The most important physiological parameters monitored in the intensive care unit are the heart rate and the morphology or shape of the electrical waveform produced by the heart. This is done to observe the presence of arrhythmias or to detect changes in the heart rate that might be indicative of a serious condition.

2. Which of the following instrument is used for monitoring patients with cardiac problems?
a) Cardiac Monitor
b) Central Monitor
c) Bedside Patient Monitor
d) Blood Pressure Monitor

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] A Cardiac monitor is specifically useful for monitoring patients with cardiac problems and the special areas in the hospitals where they are generally used are known as cardiac care units or coronary care units (CCU). These instruments are also called ‘Cardioscopes’.

3. Which of the following instrument is also known as Cardioscopes?
a) Central Monitor
b) Bedside Patient Monitor
c) Cardiac Monitor
d) Blood Pressure Monitor

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] A Cardiac monitor is specifically useful for monitoring patients with cardiac problems and the special areas in the hospitals where they are generally used are known as cardiac care units or coronary care units (CCU). These instruments are also called ‘Cardioscopes’.

4. Disposable type pregelled electrodes to pick up ____________signal in cardiac monitor.
a) EOG
b) EMG
c) ECG
d) PCG

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] A Cardiac monitor is specifically useful for monitoring patients with cardiac problems and the special areas in the hospitals where they are generally used are known as cardiac care units or coronary care units (CCU). These instruments are also called ‘Cardioscopes’ and comprise of disposable type pregelled electrodes to pick up ECG signal. Amplifier and a cathode ray tube (CRT) for the amplification and display the ECG which enable direct observation of the ECG waveform.

5. What is used for amplification of signal in cardiac monitor?
a) Piezoelectric device
b) Transducer
c) Amplifier
d) Tape recorder

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] ‘Cardioscopes’ and comprise of disposable type pregelled electrodes to pick up ECG signal. Amplifier and a cathode ray tube (CRT) for the amplification and display the ECG which enable direct observation of the ECG waveform.

6. _____________ is used to display ECG which enable direct observation of the ECG waveform.
a) Amplifier
b) Transducer
c) Tape Recorder
d) Cathode ray tube

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] ‘Cardioscopes’ and comprise of disposable type pregelled electrodes to pick up ECG signal. Amplifier and a cathode ray tube (CRT) for the amplification and display the ECG which enable direct observation of the ECG waveform.

7. A cardioscope differ in one important aspects as compared to the conventional instrument.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] False, Cardioscope differ in two important aspects as compared to the conventional instrument. These are slower sweep speeds and a long persistence screen. The slow sweep speed necessitates the use of a long persistence screen so as to enable a convenient observation of the waveform.

8. The slow sweep is an outcome of the low frequency character of ________________ signal.
a) EMG
b) EOG
c) ECG
d) PCG

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The slow sweep is an outcome of the low frequency character of the ECG signal. The slow sweep speed necessitates the use of a long persistence screen so as to enable a convenient observation of the waveform. Without a long persistence screen, one can only see a moving dot of light instead of a continuous trace.

9. What is total sweep time for a 13-cm screen?
a) 0 to 0.5 s
b) 0.5 to 2 s
c) 2 to 2.5 s
d) 2.5 to 5 s

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Without a long persistence screen, one can only see a moving dot of light instead of a continuous trace. Typically for a 13-cm screen, total sweep time is usually kept as 2.5 or 5 s. In this way, one can observe at least four heart beats in a single sweep period.

10. How many heart beat one can observe in a single sweep period?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Without a long persistence screen, one can only see a moving dot of light instead of a continuous trace. Typically for a 13-cm screen, total sweep time is usually kept as 2.5 or 5 s. In this way, one can observe at least four heart beats in a single sweep period.

11. What indicate average heart rate with audible beep?
a) disposable electrodes
b) heart rate meter
c) amplifier
d) cathode ray tube

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] ‘Cardioscopes’ and comprise of disposable type pregelled electrodes to pick up ECG signal. Amplifier and a cathode ray tube (CRT) for the amplification and display the ECG which enable direct observation of the ECG waveform.A heart rate meter to indicate average heart rate with audible beep or flashing light or both with each beat.

12. What is diameter of CRT used in small cardioscopes ?
a) 1”
b) 3”
c) 5”
d) 7”

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Small cardioscopes using 3” diameter cathode ray tubes are mounted on anaesthesia trollies. These are called “Anaesthesia monitors”. These monitors are use by the anaesthetist for continuous monitoring of the ECG of anaesthetized patients.

13. An alarm system is used to produce signal in event of abnormalities occurring in heart rate.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] ‘Cardioscopes’ and comprise of disposable type pregelled electrodes to pick up ECG signal. Amplifier and a cathode ray tube (CRT) for the amplification and display the ECG which enable direct observation of the ECG waveform.An alarm system to produce signal in the event of abnormalities occurring in the heart rate.

14. What is range of RF signals generated by Electrosurgery machine?
a) 0 to 0.4 MHz
b) 0.4 to 5 MHz
c) 5 to 6.5 MHz
d) 6.5 to 10 MHz

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Electrosurgery machines generate RF signals within a range of 0.4 to 5 MHz with peak-to-peak amplitudes of 100 to 1000 V, pulse modulated at rates from 1.5 to 25 kHz for coagulating or 120 Hz for cutting. Cardiac monitors are often used in operation theatres, where the RF is applied through a pointed scalpel at the point of incision and the return path for the current is through a wide area electrode on the opposite side of the patient’s body.

15. Which of the following storage device is used for storing digital information in memory monitors?
a) Hard disk
b) Magnetic Tape
c) RAM
d) DVD

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Two basic types of storage devices are used to store digital information in memory monitors: shift registers and random access memories. Both of them are equally good for this application. The other important component of memory monitors is the analog-to-digital converter.

Set 5

1. What is the shape of Leucocytes ?
a) Cubic
b) cuboid
c) Shperical
d) Hollow

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Leucocytes are spherical cells having a nucleus. There are normally 5000–10,000 white cells per cubic mm of blood but their number varies during the day. They live for seven to fourteen days and there is a rapid turn over, with constant destruction and replacement.

2. Life span of leucocytes is _____________
a) 3 – 4 weeks
b) 7 – 14 days
c) 9 – 10 months
d) 7 – 14 years

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] They live for seven to fourteen days and there is a rapid turn over, with constant destruction and replacement. Leucocytes form the defence mechanism of the body against infection. They are of two main types: the neutrophils and the lymphocytes. Leucocytes are spherical cells having a nucleus.

3. Leucocytes form the defence mechanism of the body against infection.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Leucocytes form the defence mechanism of the body against infection. They are of two main types: the neutrophils and the lymphocytes. Neutrophils ingest bacteria and lymphocytes are concerned with immunological response. The number and proportion of these types of leucocytes may vary widely in response to various disease conditions.

4. Neutrophills are concerned __________ and lymphocytes are concerned with __________
a) ingestion of bacteria, immunological responses
b) production of bacteria, electrical responses
c) electrical responses, production of bacteria
d) immunological responses, ingestion of bacteria

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Neutrophils ingest bacteria and lymphocytes are concerned with immunological response. The number and proportion of these types of leucocytes may vary widely in response to various disease conditions. For thus reason, it is important to know the total leucocyte count.

5. Neutrophils are smaller than the red cells.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] It is false. Neutrophils are nearly twice as big as the red cells. They contain both a nucleus divided into several lobes and granules in their protoplasm. Lymphocytes are of the same size as the red cells but contain a large density staining nucleus and no granules.

6. Which of the following option is correct in terms of size?
a) Monocytes > Neutrophils > RBC > lymphocytes
b) Monocytes > Neutrophils > RBC >= lymphocytes
c) Monocytes < Neutrophils < RBC < lymphocytes
d) Monocytes =< Neutrophils < RBC < lymphocytes

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Monocytes are twice as big as neutrophils. Neutrophils are twice as big as the RBC. The lymphotocytes are of almost of the same size of the RBC of smaller. Thus option b in perfect choice.

7. _________ is the ratio of the integrated platelet volume to the platelet count and is expressed in femolitres.
a) Mean Platelet Volume
b) Platelet Distribution Width
c) Red Cell Distribution Width
d) Mean Cell Haemoglobin Concentration

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Mean Platelet Volume (MPV) is the ratio of the integrated platelet volume to the platelet count and is expressed in femolitres. Red Cell Distribution Width is a numerical expression of the width of the size distribution of red cells. Platelet Distribution Width is related to the size range covered by those platelets lying between the sixteenth and eighty fourth percentile.

8. Normal mean red cell volume is _____________
a) 6 ± 10 f/l
b) 16 ± 10 f/l
c) 86 ± 10 f/l
d) 56 ± 10 f/l

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Normal mean red cell volume is 86 ± 10 f/l. In diseased conditions, it may fall to 50 f/l or rise upto 150 f/l. 1f/l = 10–15 . 1 litre of blood contains 0.45 litres of red cells and if there are 5 ¥ 1012 red cells per litre.

9. Normal mean cell haemoglobin is 29.5 ± 2.5 pg.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] It is true. Normal mean cell haemoglobin is 29.5 ± 2.5 pg. In diseased conditions it may rise to 50 pg or fall to 15 pg.

10. The percentage of the total specimen volume occupied by the platelets is called _____
a) Platelet Distribution Width
b) Red Cell Distribution Width
c) Plateletcrit
d) Mean Platelet Volume

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The percentage of the total specimen volume occupied by the platelets is called. Mean Platelet Volume is the ratio of the integrated platelet volume to the platelet count and is expressed in femolitres. Red Cell Distribution Width is a numerical expression of the width of the size distribution of red cells.

11. What is used in modern instrument for intravascular oximetry?
a) photodiode
b) red and infrared LED’s
c) optical fibre
d) phototransistor

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] For intravascular oximetry, modern instruments make use of optical fibres to guide the light signal inside the vessel and the reflected light from the red blood cells back to the light detector.

12. For estimating SO2, usually reflectance at ________ wavelengths are used.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] For estimating SO2, usually the reflectance at two wavelengths, one in the red and the other in the near infrared regions, are used.

13. How many wavelengths are utilized by currently available oximeters?
a) More than 2
b) Less than 2
c) Equal to 2
d) Cannot be determined

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] For estimating SO2, usually the reflectance at two wavelengths, one in the red and the other in the near infrared regions, are used. Currently available fiber-optic oximeters utilize more than two wavelengths to adjust for haematocrit variation.

14. What is used to measure mix venous saturation?
a) Ear Oximeter
b) Pulse Oximeter
c) Skin Reflectance Oximeter
d) Intravascular Oximeter

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Intravasacular oximeters are normally used to measure mixed venous saturation, from which the status of the circulatory system can be deduced. Mixed venous saturation varies in reflecting the changes of oxygen saturation, cardiac output, haematocrit or haemoglobin content and oxygen consumption.

15. The RDW index is expressed by which of the following equation ?
a) [ ( 20th – 80th ) Percentile Volume / ( 20th + 80th ) Percentile Volume ] X 100 X K
b) [ ( 20th + 80th ) Percentile Volume / ( 20th – 80th ) Percentile Volume ] X 100 X K
c) [ ( 20th – 80th ) Percentile Volume / ( 20th – 80th ) Percentile Volume ] X 100 X K
d) [ ( 20th + 80th ) Percentile Volume / ( 20th + 80th ) Percentile Volume ] X 100 X K

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The RDW index is expressed by the following equation [ ( 20th – 80th ) Percentile Volume / ( 20th + 80th ) Percentile Volume ] X 100 X K. It is a numerical expression of the width of the size distribution of red cells. It is derived by analog computation. The total erythrocyte count is scanned by a continuously variable thresholding circuit. The upper threshold is moved progressively lower from a level equivalent to 360 femolitres until 20 per cent of all erythrocytes present have a size above a certain value.