Engineering Online MCQ Number 0715 – online study, assignment and exam

Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. Suitable method for treating acidic or basic hazardous waste is _____
a) Neutralisation
b) Precipitation
c) Hydrolysis
d) Electrolysis

Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] When a hazardous waste has either high or low pH the most suitable treatment method adopted is neutralisation.

2. Neutralisation involves addition of ____ substances with the waste.
a) Hydraulic
b) Chemical
c) Physical
d) Biological

Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Neutralisation involves addition of chemical substances to waste which is either acidic or basic, to change pH to neutral level i.e. 6‐8.

3. Complete the equation
Acid + Base =_____ + water.
a) Salt
b) Chemical
c) Alkali
d) pH

Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Acid and base mixed together reacts to neutralize the acid and base properties, producing a salt.

4. Common reagents for neutralising acid wastes are ____
a) Sodium
b) Lime and sodium hydroxide
c) Lime and zinc
d) Lead

Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Acidic hazardous wastes are neutralised with slaked lime, caustic soda or sodium hydroxide.

5. Common reagents for neutralising alkaline wastes are ____
a) Sulphuric and HCl
b) Lime and sodium hydroxide
c) Lime and zinc
d) Lead

Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Alkaline hazardous wastes are neutralised with strong mineral acid such as Sulphuric acid, hydrochloric acid or with carbon-di-oxide.

6. Dissolved salts of hazardous metal wastes can be treated by neutralisation. True or False.
a) True
b) False

Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Acidic or alkaline solutions which includes dissolved salts of metals which forms insoluble species can be treated by neutralisation by varying pH.

7. Neutralisation process is extensively applied for ____ hazardous waste.
a) Reactive
b) Neutral
c) Corrosive
d) Chemical

Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Neutralization process is used on corrosive hazardous waste to reduce the corrosivity level of the waste.

8. Neutralisation adjusts pH level of corrosive between ____ and ____
a) 5, 9
b) 5.5, 9.5
c) 6, 7
d) 7, 8

Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The neutralization procedure adjusts the pH level of the corrosive waste to a pH between 5.5 and 9.5. The purpose of neutralisation is to alter the corrosive characteristic of the waste so that it can be disposed in a non-hazardous way.

9. Personal protective equipment should be worn while neutralising corrosive hazardous waste. True or False.
a) True
b) False

Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Personal protective equipment such as face shield, nitrile gloves and acid resistant apron should be worn while treating corrosive HW for safe management.

10. The process of neutralizing waste as listed in WAC 173-303-090 is known as ____
a) Elementary neutralization
b) Chemical neutralization
c) Physical neutralization
d) Biological neutralization

Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The elementary neutralization method reduces a material’s corrosivity to pH range 6 to 9 and makes it less hazardous.

Set 2

1. Under the OSH Act, employers are responsible for providing a ______
a) Safe workplace
b) Land
c) Insurance
d) Estimation

Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Under the OSH Act, employers are accountable for providing a safe and healthful workplace. OSHA’s mission is to assure safe and healthful workplaces by enforcing standards, and by providing training, outreach, education and help.

2. OSHA was created to _____
a) Data analysis
b) To reduce hazards
c) Ecological development
d) EIA analysis

Answer

Answer:b [Reason:] OSHA was created mainly to encourage employees and employers to reduce workplace hazards and to implement safety and health programs.

3. Which act establishes responsibilities and rights for employers and employees?
a) SARA
b) RCRA
c) CERCLA
d) OSHA

Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] OSHA establishes training programs, develops mandatory job safety and health standards, and encourages to enforce them.

4. OSHA is part of the ______ department of labour.
a) UK
b) US
c) India
d) Australia

Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] OSHA is part of US department of labour and is responsible for conducting job site inspections to ensure safety at workplace.

5. In the case of fatal accident, when should be a report filed for nearest OSHA office?
a) Within 24 hours
b) Within 48 hours
c) Within 8 hours
d) Within 4 hours

Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] In case of lethal accident, a report to the nearest OSHA office should be filed within 8 hours and also when one that results in the hospitalization of three or more employees.

6. OSHA assignment is to set standards and conduct _____
a) Inspections
b) Tests
c) Analysis
d) Estimation

Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] OSHA has two regulatory functions: setting standards and conducting inspections to ensure that employers are providing safe and healthful workplaces. OSHA standards may require that employers adopt certain practices, methods, or processes reasonably necessary and appropriate to protect workers on the job.

7. OSHA ensures that employees have been provided with _____
a) Job
b) PPE
c) Insurance
d) Security

Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] OSHA ensures that employees are effectively trained on, have been provided with personal protective equipment and use when required for safety or health. Employees must comply with all rules and regulations that apply to their own actions and conduct.

8. Under OSHA, employee has the right to access medical records. True or False.
a) True
b) False

Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The access to medical and exposure records, regulation provides a right of access to employees, their designated representatives, and OSHA to relevant medical records, including records related to that employee’s exposure to toxic substances.

9. Hazard communication in OSHA conducts _____
a) Chemical analysis
b) Toxic exposure
c) Strength analysis
d) Hazard evaluations of the products

Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Hazard communication standard requires manufacturers and importers of hazardous materials to conduct hazard evaluations of the products they manufacture or import. If a product is found to be hazardous under the terms of the standard, the manufacturer or importer must so indicate on containers of the material, and the first shipment of the material to a new customer must include MSDS.

10. The OSHA Form 300 is an injury/illness log.
a) Injury
b) Analysis
c) Finance
d) Assistance

Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The OSHA Form 300 is an injury/illness log, with a separate line entry for each recordable injury or illness. The events include work-related deaths, injuries, and illnesses other than minor injuries that require only first aid treatment and that do not involve medical treatment, loss of consciousness, restriction of work, or transfer to another job.

11. When should be the form 300A posted?
a) January
b) February
c) March
d) April

Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Each year, the employer must clearly post in the workplace a Form 300A, which includes a summary of the previous year’s work-related injuries and illnesses. The Form 300A must be posted by February 1 and kept in place until at least April 30.

12. What is OSHA Form 301?
a) Sickness log
b) Individual incident report
c) Chemical log
d) Finance log

Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] OSHA Form 301 is an individual incident report that provides added detail about each specific recordable injury or illness. An alternative form, such as an insurance or workers compensation form that provides the same details may be substituted for OSHA Form 301.

13. Employers in statistically low-hazard industries are exempt from maintaining OSHA 300 form records. True or False.
a) True
b) False

Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Employers with 10 or fewer employees and employers in statistically low-hazard industries (listed in 29 CFR 1904, Sub-part B) are exempt from maintaining OSHA Form 300 records.

14. Safety and Health Achievement Recognition Program (SHARP) recognizes _____
a) Small employers who operate safety and health management system
b) Large employers who operate safety and health management system
c) All employers who operate safety and health management system
d) Workers who operate safety and health management system

Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Employers who are accepted into SHARP are accepted as models for worksite safety and health. Upon receiving SHARP recognition, the worksite will be excused from programmed inspections during the period that the SHARP certification is valid.

15. When was OSHA enacted?
a) 1980
b) 1930
c) 1945
d) 1970

Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSH Act) was enacted by Congress in 1970 and authorized the Secretary of Labour to establish Federal standards to ensure safe workplace conditions.

Set 3

1. Under MTCA, the process for cleaning up a hazardous waste site is ____
a) SHA
b) NPL
c) HAP
d) SHP

Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Site Hazard Assessment (SHA) is the process for cleaning up a hazardous waste site under Model Toxic Control Act.

2. What is the main purpose of a site hazard assessment?
a) To provide data
b) Obtain SHA
c) Analysis
d) Establishment

Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The main purpose of a site hazard assessment is to provide sufficient sampling data and other information to confirm contamination and identify HW.

3. Site Hazard Assessment always necessary. True or False.
a) True
b) False

Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Sites doing independent clean-ups and requesting Ecology consultation does not require Site Hazard Assessment.

4. Site ranking by WRM represents an estimation of __________
a) Threat
b) Inactivity
c) Toxic
d) Chemicals

Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Site ranking by Washington Ranking Method represents an estimation of the potential threat posed by a site.

5. Landfill should not be constructed within ________ m of lake or pond.
a) 100
b) 200
c) 300
d) 400

Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Landfill should not be constructed within 200 m of lake or pond because of concerns regarding runoff of waste water contact.

6. A landfill site should be ___________ m away from informed habituated area.
a) 100
b) 200
c) 300
d) 500

Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] A zone of 500 m around a landfill boundary should be declared a No-Development Buffer Zone and developmental activities are prohibited.

7. A landfill should be constructed within __________ m of highway.
a) 100
b) 200
c) 300
d) 400

Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] A landfill should be constructed within 200 m of the right of way of any state or national highway for aesthetic reasons.

8. Subsoil investigation has to be done for __________
a) Landfill design
b) Analysis
c) Recovery
d) Transport

Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Subsoil investigation has to be done for landfill design, for borrow area of liner material and for approach road to landfill.

9. Hydrological investigation has to be done for ___________
a) Landfill design
b) Analysis
c) Recovery
d) Collection of hydrological data

Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Hydrological investigation has to be done for collection of hydro-meteorological data and topographical maps of surrounding area.

10. The active period of landfill range from ____________ years.
a) 10-20
b) 20-30
c) 30-40
d) 40-50

Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The active period of a landfill range from 10 to 25 years depending on the availability of land area.

Set 4

1. _____treatment method prevent immobilization of hazardous waste into environment.
a) Hydrolysis
b) Neutralisation
c) Chemical precipitation
d) Stabilisation and solidification

Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Stabilisation and solidification treatment protects human health and the environment by immobilizing contaminants within the treated hazardous waste.

2. Which treatment is better suitable for remediation of contaminated hazardous waste site?
a) Hydrolysis
b) Neutralisation
c) Chemical precipitation
d) Stabilisation and solidification

Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Under RCRA and CERCLA program stabilisation and solidification treatment technique is adopted for remediation of contaminated hazardous waste site.

3. In stabilisation and solidification treatment _____ is mixed with contaminated media.
a) Binding reagent
b) Neutralisation agent
c) Acidic agent
d) Basic agent

Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Binding agent is mixed with contaminated media to solidify and stabilise the waste and to prevent further pollution into environment.

4. Solidification refers to changes in the _____ properties of hazardous waste.
a) Physical
b) Chemical
c) Biological
d) Physico-chemical

Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Physical changes include increase of the compressive strength, a decrease of permeability, and capsulation of hazardous constituents.

5. Stabilisation refers to changes in the _____ properties of hazardous waste.
a) Physical
b) Chemical
c) Biological
d) Physico-chemical

Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The chemical changes include converting the hazardous constituents into a less soluble, mobile, or toxic form.

6. Cement kiln dust can be used as binding reagent. True or False.
a) True
b) False

Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Cement kiln dust (CKD), lime, lime kiln dust (LKD), limestone, fly ash, slag etc. are used as binding reagents to solidify and stabilise the hazardous content of waste.

7. Stabilisation and solidification treatment can be applied for liquid waste. True or False.
a) True
b) False

Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Stabilisation and solidification treatment is often used to solidify liquids so that the waste can be land disposed.

8. The end product resulting from solidification process is ___
a) Liquid waste
b) Silt
c) Waste block
d) Organics

Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] End product resulting from solidification process is a monolithic block of waste with high structural integrity.

9. _____process encapsulates contaminants in polyethylene.
a) PERM
b) DERM
c) TERM
d) POPA

Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The Department of Energy (DOE) is developing Polyethylene Encapsulation of Radionuclides and Heavy Metals (PERM) procedure. This process encapsulates contaminants in polyethylene and prevents heavy metal contamination.

Set 5

1. Before shipment, hazardous waste has to be properly ______
a) Packed and labelled
b) Sealed
c) Analysed
d) Verified

Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] When preparing for a shipment, the hazardous waste has to be properly packed and contents has to be labelled.

2. How many hazard classes should be taken into account while packing the waste?
a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 9

Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Nine hazard classes should be considered while classifying the hazardous material for packing and the hazards associated with the material should also be considered.

3. Hazard classes define _____
a) Probable risk
b) Chemicals
c) Pollutants
d) Contaminants

Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Hazard classes define the type of risk a hazardous material may pose to human health and to environment.

4. Packing group indicates _____
a) Probable risk
b) Degree of risk
c) Contaminant
d) Pollutant

Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Packing groups indicates the degree of risk a hazardous material or substance may pose in the time of transport.

5. Packing Group II indicates high danger while transporting. True or False.
a) True
b) False

Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Packing group I indicates high danger while transporting while II and III states about moderate and low danger.

6. Hazard class 2 talks about radioactive waste. True or False.
a) True
b) False

Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Hazard class 2 talks about flammable, non-flammable, non-toxic compressed gases while class 7 talks about radioactive materials.

7. The packing material must be _____
a) Inert
b) Reactive
c) Organic
d) Synthetic

Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The packing material must be inert and not react with the hazardous waste, and must be able to absorb impact in case of container is dropped.

8. Oils are preferably stored in ____
a) Bags
b) Drums
c) Jerrycans
d) Box

Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Waste oils and solvents are best suited for storage in 200 litre steel bung drums or tanks.

9. Inorganic liquid waste are best suitable in _____
a) Plastic cans
b) Bags
c) Drums
d) Cans

Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Inorganic wastes are best stored in plastic cans or polyethylene tanks of 30, 45 or 200 litre capacity.

10. Without proper labeling, it is difficult for _____
a) Proper handling
b) Maintaining
c) Analysis
d) Transportation

Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Without proper labeling and marking, it is impossible to ensure proper handling and compatible storage.

11. Labelling refers to _____
a) Information must be displayed
b) Physical attributes
c) Capacity
d) Quantity

Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] labelling refers to information which must be displayed on marker. Markin describes the physical attributes affixed on a container.

12. Hazard labels are _____ shaped.
a) Rectangular
b) Triangular
c) Circular
d) Diamond

Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Hazard labels are diamond shaped and are required for dangerous goods except magnetised materials.

13. Handling labels are ______ shaped.
a) Rectangular
b) Triangular
c) Circular
d) Diamond

Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Handling labels are various rectangular shapes and are required alone or in addition of hazardous labels.

14. Labels should be at least ____mm square.
a) 99
b) 98
c) 100
d) 101

Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Labels should be at least 100mm square. They must be legible and recognizable in day time and at night.

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