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Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. When a hazardous waste management unit stops receiving waste and reaches the end of its active life it must be closed according to RCRA. True or False.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] When a hazardous waste management unit stops receiving waste and reaches the end of its active life it must be cleaned up, closed, monitored, and maintained in compliance with RCRA.

2. The requirements for closure and post-closure activities are entitled in CFR ____ and ____
a) 264, 265
b) 265, 266
c) 266, 267
d) 267, 268

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The requirements for closure and post-closure activities are found in title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) in part 264 or part 265, subpart G Closure and Post-Closure.

3. Part 264 of closure and post-closure rules are applied to ___
a) Industries
b) Facilities
c) Permitted facilities
d) TSDF

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Part 264 of closure and post-closure rules are applied to permitted facilities under Code of Federal Regulations (CFR).

4. Part 265 of closure and post-closure rules are applied to ___
a) Industries
b) Facilities
c) Permitted facilities
d) Facilities before rules adopted

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Part 264 of closure and post-closure rules are applied to facilities in operation before these rules became effective and is referred to as interim status facilities.

5. In a multiple HW management facility, ceasing only one unit operation which others remain intact is known as ____ closure.
a) Partial
b) Complete
c) Half
d) Final

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] At TSDFs where multiple HW management units in operation, ceasing only one unit operation while remaining units in operation is known as partial closure.

6. Removing all wastes from the waste management unit and decontaminate or remove all equipment is known as ____ closure.
a) Partial
b) Full
c) Clean
d) Decontaminate

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Removing all wastes from the waste management unit, decontaminate or remove all equipment, structures, and surrounding soils is known as clean closure.

7. Interim status facilities must have written closure plans within ____ months before closure.
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Interim status facilities should have written closure plans within six months of becoming prior to subject regulations.

8. Facilities with landfills and land treatment units are required to notify the EPA ____ days prior to the date they intend to begin partial or final closure.
a) 20
b) 40
c) 60
d) 80

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Facilities with landfills, impoundments, land treatment units, and waste piles are subjected to notify the EPA Regional Administrator 60 days prior to the date they intend to begin partial or final closure of landfill.

9. Facilities with tanks and boilers should notify EPA 60 days prior before closure. True or False.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Facilities with containers, tanks, incinerators or boilers and industrial furnaces should notify EPA 45 days prior before closure.

10. After landfill unit receives last shipment of hazardous waste, it has ____ days to commence closure.
a) 10
b) 20
c) 30
d) 40

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] After landfill unit receives last shipment of hazardous waste, it has 30 days to commence closure preparations and 180 days to complete all closure activities.

11. After completing closure operations facility has ___ days to inform EPA.
a) 20
b) 40
c) 60
d) 80

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] After completing closure operations facility has 60 days to certify closure completion by submitting a written certification to EPA regional administration.

12. What is the standard post-closure care period?
a) 10
b) 20
c) 30
d) 40

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The standard post-closure care period is 30 years but this can be shortened or extended on a case-by-case basis by the permitting authority.

13. What is the purpose of risk based clean closure memo?
a) Analysis
b) Storage rules
c) Guidance on risk based closure
d) Adopt risk based closure

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The purpose of risk based clean closure memo is to provide guidance on risk-based clean closure and to confirm that, under current RCRA regulations.

Set 2

1. What is the aim of Basel Convention?
a) Controlling movement of hazardous waste
b) Restricting movement of waste
c) Analysis of waste
d) Characterisation of waste

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The first process of the Basel Convention aims at controlling movement of hazardous waste, and safeguarding health and environment of developing countries.

2. When did the Basel convention came into force?
a) 1989
b) 1990
c) 1991
d) 1992

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The Basel convention on Control of Trans boundary Movements of Hazardous wastes their disposal and safety management entered into force in 1992.

3. What is considered as a waste under Basel convention?
a) Substance which has to be thrown
b) Substance which has to disposed by law
c) Throw away object
d) Object not in use

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Under Basel convention, wastes are substances or objects which are disposed of, or intend to be disposed of by provisions of National Law.

4. Annex IX identifies waste which require special attention. True or False.
a) False
b) True

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Annex I, VII, IX of Convention are the list of wastes that are classified as hazardous. Annex II of the Convention identifies wastes that require special consideration for disposal.

5. What is the overall goal of Basel Convention?
a) Chemical analysis
b) Waste characterisation
c) Protect ecosystem from improper hazardous waste management
d) Restrict import of waste

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The goal of Basel Convention is to protect human health and environment against adverse effect which may result from improper management of hazardous waste.

6. Basel Convention ensures that _____
a) Transboundary movement when waste is properly disposed
b) Transboundary movement of waste
c) Transboundary movement of chemicals
d) Transboundary movement of pollutants

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Basel Convention ensures that transboundary movement of hazardous waste will only be permitted when the transport and ultimate disposal of waste is undertaken in environmentally sound manner.

7. The main element of Basel convention is ___
a) Control regime for waste movement
b) Control regime for hazardous waste movement
c) Control regime for waste
d) Control regime for waste analysis

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The main element of Basel convention is to control regime for transboundary movement of hazardous waste and its safe disposal.

8. According to proximity principle hazardous wastes to be disposed _____
a) As close as possible
b) As far as possible
c) In the surrounding
d) Off-site

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The proximity principle requires disposal of hazardous waste as close as possible to the point of generation.

9. What is least trans boundary principle?
a) Reduce waste
b) Import waste
c) Export waste
d) Waste analysis

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] In least Transboundary movement principle, the polluter is required to do all they can to prevent pollution and must pay for remedial actions, if needed.

10. What is principle of sovereignty?
a) Import procedure
b) Export procedure
c) Right to ban
d) Right to accept

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The principle of sovereignty includes a right to ban on imports of the hazardous waste if the proper documentation is not provided.

11. What is considered as illegal waste under Basel convention?
a) HW without proper document
b) HW without proper packing
c) HW without labelling
d) HW without classification

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Hazardous waste movements which are made without correct documents and prior notification are illegal under Basel convention.

12. Illegal traffic has to be reported to _____
a) Polluter
b) Receiver
c) Exporter
d) Secretariat

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] States should ensure that confirmed or alleged illegal traffic are to be reported to Secretariat in order to undertake appropriate action.

13. Hazard classification has to be done according to _____
a) Rotterdam convention
b) Basel convention
c) Stockholm convention
d) Montreal protocol

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Classification and characterisation of hazardous waste has to be undertaken along with proper labelling of waste according to Basel convention.

14. Basel convention focus on ____
a) Safe disposal of HW
b) Discarding of HW
c) Export of HW
d) Import of HW

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The main focus of Basel convention is the environmentally sound management of hazardous waste.

15. The wastes covered in convention include e-waste. True or False.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The wastes covered in convention include biomedical, healthcare wastes, used oils, PoPs, PCBs, e-waste and waste containing mercury and asbestos.

Set 3

1. When was UCIL established?
a) 1967
b) 1968
c) 1969
d) 1970

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Union Carbide India Limited (UCIL) was established in 1969 as a people-friendly industry which produced pesticide.

2. When was the first death due to chemical exposure reported in UCIL?
a) 1980
b) 1981
c) 1982
d) 1983

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] On 23 December 1981, worker is accidentally exposed to phosgene dies and the workers realized the chemicals they are dealing with are poisonous.

3. 25 workers were hospitalized due to phosgene exposure in 1981. True or False.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] None of the victims had been forewarned by the UCC management to wear protective masks while moving about in the area prone to phosgene leaks and it resulted in hospitalization of 25 workers.

4. A massive leak of _____ affected workers in 1982.
a) Phosgene
b) Chlorine
c) Chloride
d) Sulphur

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] On December 3, 1982 a massive leak of chlorine affected 16 workers, and neighbouring shanties.

5. When was the attempt to transfer MIC from tank 610 to the processing facility failed?
a) 1980
b) 1981
c) 1982
d) 1984

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] On November 1984 operators attempt to transfer MIC from tank 610 to the processing facility, but the tank fails to pressurize, indicating a leak.

6. What was the chemical gas leaked from Union Carbide plant?
a) MIC
b) MICA
c) MI
d) MIS

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Toxic methyl isocyanate (MIC) gas was leaked on December 2, 1984 from tank 610 due to valve malfunction.

7. What was the amount of MIC leaked from Bhopal gas tragedy?
a) 40
b) 50
c) 60
d) 70

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] 40-45 tonnes of MIC had leaked between 02.00 to 02.30 in the morning, exposing more than 500,000 people to toxic gases.

8. What was the penalty asked to pay by UC to Indian state?
a) 450
b) 460
c) 470
d) 480

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] In 1998, UC agreed to the Supreme Court of India to pay 470 million US dollars to the Indian state.

9. Which among the following is the primary cause of death due to gas leak?
a) Dizziness
b) Vomiting
c) Choking
d) Restlessness

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Thousands of people died the following morning of gas leak and the primary causes of death were choking, reflexogenic circulatory collapse, and the autopsies revealed fatty degeneration of the liver.

10. What was the gas cloud composition other than MIC?
a) Chloroform
b) Lead
c) Sulphur
d) Zinc

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] According to 2008 report, the gas cloud contained phosgene, chloroform, hydrogen chloride, oxides of nitrogen, monomethyl amine and carbon dioxide.

Set 4

1. Including tachograph in trucks were employed by ____
a) IIHS
b) IHTS
c) IPYS
d) IITA

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] To reduce accidents and for better braking system Insurance Institute for Highway Safety (IIHS) recommended to include tachograph in trucks.

2. Which among the following are the main carrier of bulk transport on road?
a) Tanks
b) Cargo tanks
c) Trucks
d) Tankers

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Cargo tanks are the main carrier of bulk transport on road and are usually made of steel and aluminium.

3. Capacity range of cargo tank is _____ gallons.
a) 4000-12000
b) 4000-8000
c) 8000-12000
d) 5000-10000

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Capacity of cargo tank ranges from 4000-12000 gallons, some states allow higher gross weights.

4. The large private interstate transporters have new tankers. True or False.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The large private interstate transporters have new tankers and small intrastate private carriers have older equipment.

5. Useful life of cargo tanks used to export _____ years.
a) 10
b) 20
c) 30
d) 40

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Useful life of cargo tanks used to export is 20 years and cargo tanks generally go through succession of owners.

6. Life span of tanker carrying corrosive is less. True or False.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Life span of tanker carrying corrosive is less than that of cargo tanks carrying non-corrosives.

7. Which of the following transportation poses greater property damage?
a) Gasoline
b) Oil
c) Fuel
d) Propane

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The larger volume transportation of gasoline is responsible for more deaths, injuries and property than transportation of other hazardous materials.

8. What is the useful life span of tankers in rail shipment?
a) 30
b) 50
c) 70
d) 20

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] 80% of annual rail shipment hazardous materials involve tankers which has useful life span of 30-40 years.

9. What is the percent of chemicals transported in rail tonnage?
a) 60
b) 66
c) 70
d) 76

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] 66% of rail tonnage consists of chemicals, 23% petroleum products and 25% liquids or corrosive materials.

10. What is the capacity range of tank barges used in marine shipment?
a) 30000-60000
b) 20000-30000
c) 20000-30000
d) 4000-50000

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The capacity range of tank barges used in marine shipment is 30000-60000 gallons and tankers are 10 times larger than those f used in road shipment.

11. Which among the following comes under non-bulk transportation?
a) Gasoline
b) Fuel
c) Oil
d) Wood

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Materials used in on-bulk packaging include fibre, plastic, wood, glass, fibre glass and metals.

Set 5

1. The important factors to be considered in decision making process for ecological risk assessment are ______
a) Finding thresholds and identifying the potential for irreversible change
b) Chemical analysis
c) Rate of exposure
d) Dose response

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] For risks due to long-term exposure to chemicals, the risk assessment activity generally incorporates the estimation of the response of people to the exposure and identifies potential of threat for irreversible change.

2. Adverse impact analysis is done to assist in judging whether the consequences are great enough to require increased management. True of False
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Adverse impact analysis is conducted to estimate how much damage or injury can be expected from exposures to a given risk agent and to assist in judging whether these consequences are great enough to require increased management or regulation.

3. Risk assessment includes prioritization of risks, categorization of recommended safeguards. True of False
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Risk Management includes prioritization of risks, categorization of recommended safeguards, their feasibility of implementation, and other risk mitigation processes and solutions within the management, operational and technical environment.

4. In ecological risk assessment, risk is expressed as the ratio of _________
a) PEC to PNEC
b) PNEC to PEC
c) PEC TO OEC
d) PEN TO PEC

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] In ecological risk assessment, risk is expressed as the ratio of predicted environmental concentration (PEC) to predicted non – effect concentration (PNEC) for a particular chemical. A (PEC / PNEC) of less than 1 implies that the risk arising from the hazard of toxicity is low or effectively zero.

5. For existing chemicals, we should always consider ________ exposure assessment based on modelling, to derive an environmental concentration.
a) Better case
b) Reasonable worst case
c) Moderate case
d) High case

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] After reasonable worst case exposure, the subsequent step is to estimate the substance’s release rate based upon its use pattern. All potential emission sources are analysed from production and formulation to use and disposal, and the receiving environmental compartment(s) is/are identified.

6. What is the task of risk management?
a) Implementing the management measures and allocating management resources
b) Chemical analysis
c) Exposure assessment
d) Toxicity assessment

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The most important task in risk management is implementing the management measures and allocating management resources. This should be followed by monitoring the effectiveness of these measures over time.

7. What is the main goal of risk management?
a) Pathway analysis
b) Estimation
c) Transportation
d) Calculate probability of adverse effect on individual and population

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The main goal of risk management is to estimate and calculate probability of adverse effect on individual and population.

8. ________ is an example for indirect measurement in exposure assessment.
a) Environmental measurement
b) Personal measurement
c) Biological exposure monitoring
d) Biological effect monitoring

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Direct methods of exposure assessment includes environmental measurement, personal measurement, biological exposure monitoring while indirect measurement includes biological effect monitoring, bio markers of exposure, surveys, consumption records.

9. Toxicological and epidemiological exposure-response relationship comes under ___
a) Consequence assessment
b) Chemical assessment
c) Character assessment
d) Co-existence assessment

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Key information in consequence assessment are exposure-response relationships, extrapolation from animal studies, toxicological exposure-response relationship, epidemiological exposure-response relationship, low-dose extrapolation problem, stochastic effects and modelling.

10. How is sensitivity analysed in risk estimation?
a) By critical assumptions
b) Chemical assessment
c) Character assessment
d) Personal measurement

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Sensitivity can be analysed by critical assumptions, behavior of model (e.g. Monte Carlo), multiple models and assessing convergence of prediction.