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# Multiple choice question for engineering

## Set 1

1. Zero force members has _______ loadings.
a) Infinite
b) No
c) Minimum
d) Maximum

Answer: b [Reason:] The zero member force are having no loadings. They doesn’t involve in the loading part of the story in the trusses. They doesn’t provide the stress nor the strain to the body of the structure. Hence they have no load associated with them.

2. The zero forces are used to improve__________ of the structure.
a) Stability
b) Ductility
c) Malleability
d) Toughness

Answer: a [Reason:] The zero forces increase the stability of the structures. That the frames of the structures, which are there present in the structure. The stability of the joints, making them to be in rotational as well as translational equilibrium.

3. Find the force in the member UR. a) 300N
b) 800N
c) 500N
d) 400N

Answer: c [Reason:] The direction of the unknown is not known to us. To know the direction of the unknown force we take assumption of it. That is we assume that the particular direction might be the direction of the force and then we do the calculations accordingly. And then we apply the equilibrium equations to the joints.

4. We find the zero force members by inspections.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a [Reason:] The answer is yes. We find the zero force members by inspection. We do not have a special function or any special method for finding the zero force members of the structure. But yes the zero force members are founded by inspections only.

5. If two members of the structure (trusses) forms a truss joint and there is no external force acting on that joint then the two members are called___________
a) Scalar form of the force vector
b) The equivalent vector of truss
c) Zero moment member
d) Zero force member

Answer: d [Reason:] If two members of the structure (trusses) forms a truss joint and there is no external force acting on that joint then the two members are called as zero force members. This is again came from inspection. If we imagine the same, we see that there are no movements, thus they are zero force members.

6. Find the horizontal support reactions at A. a) 300N
b) 0N
c) 500N
d) 400N

Answer: d [Reason:] The direction of the unknown is not known to us. To know the direction of the unknown force we take assumption of it. That is we assume that the particular direction might be the direction of the force and then we do the calculations accordingly. And then we apply the equilibrium equations to the joints.

7. If two members of the structure (trusses) forms a truss joint and there is an external force acting on that joint then the two members are called as zero force members.
a) False
b) True

Answer: a [Reason:] If two members of the structure (trusses) forms a truss joint and there is no external force acting on that joint then the two members are called as zero force members. This is again came from inspection. If we imagine the same, we see that there are no movements, thus they are zero force members.

8. Which of following is not considered as the true condition for the three members to be zero force members?
a) Any two of the three members must be collinear
b) There must be no external forces acting
c) They should be joined by a joint
d) Any two of the three members must be perpendicular

Answer: d [Reason:] The three members to be having a zero member must have any two of the three members collinear. There must be no external forces acting on the section or the joint which is being selected. And obviously all the members must be attached.

9. In three members having one as zero force member in truss, what if there is an external force applied?
a) The zero force member will be unaltered
b) The zero member needs to be changed or rotated
c) There will be no zero member
d) There will be two zero members formed

Answer: c [Reason:] For making any one of the member of the truss to be as a zero member all the conditions are to be followed. Like any two of the three members collinear. There must be no external forces acting on the section or the joint which is being selected.

10. What will happen if the collinearity of the two members is affected?
a) The zero force member will be unaltered
b) The zero member needs to be changed or rotated
c) There will be no zero member
d) There will be two zero members formed

Answer: c [Reason:] For making any one of the member of the truss to be as a zero member all the conditions are to be followed. Like any two of the three members collinear. There must be no external forces acting on the section or the joint which is being selected.

11. Find the force in the member QR. a) 300N
b) 800N
c) 500N
d) 400N

Answer: b [Reason:] The direction of the unknown is not known to us. To know the direction of the unknown force we take assumption of it. That is we assume that the particular direction might be the direction of the force and then we do the calculations accordingly. And then we apply the equilibrium equations to the joints.

12. What will happen if the three members are all perpendicular to each other? No external force is applied to them.
a) There will be formation of one zero force member
b) There will be formation of two zero force member
c) There will be formation of three zero force member
d) There will be no formation of zero force member

Answer: a [Reason:] As far as the conditions are required for the equilibrium and for the zero force members, this joint explained will be having a zero force member. Which will be unaffected to shear stress and shear strain. Thus the zero member formation.

13. Find the force in the member UT. a) 300N
b) 800N
c) 500N
d) 400N

Answer: b [Reason:] The direction of the unknown is not known to us. To know the direction of the unknown force we take assumption of it. That is we assume that the particular direction might be the direction of the force and then we do the calculations accordingly. And then we apply the equilibrium equations to the joints.

14. The ___________ forces do not cause the rotation.
a) Non-concurrent
b) Concurrent
c) Parallel
d) Non-Parallel

Answer: b [Reason:] The concurrent forces are the which are somewhere touching the axis of rotation. If any of the force is touching that axis, that force is not considered, or is insufficient to cause a rotation. If a force is concurrent then the perpendicular distance of the force from the line of axis is zero, thus no rotation. As we know rotation is caused by moment.

15. Find the vertical support reactions at A. a) 300N
b) 800N
c) 500N
d) 400N

Answer: a [Reason:] The direction of the unknown is not known to us. To know the direction of the unknown force we take assumption of it. That is we assume that the particular direction might be the direction of the force and then we do the calculations accordingly. And then we apply the equilibrium equations to the joints.

## Set 2

1. The maximum value of the frictional force is called _________
a) Limiting Friction
b) Non-Limiting Friction
c) Limiting Action Friction
d) Non-Limiting Action Friction

Answer: a [Reason:] The friction is the phenomena that defines that there is a resistance which is present there between the two surfaces. The two surfaces are in contact and the friction applies at that surface only, resisting the motion of the surface. Thus the maximum values is called as limiting friction.

2. When the body which is applied forces come in the stage of the limiting friction then the body is termed as to come in ___________ equilibrium.
a) Unstable
b) Stable
c) Non-stable
d) Improper Stable

Answer: a [Reason:] As the limiting friction is the maximum value of the frictional forces. Thus if more force is applied to the body then the body is going to move forward. Because the two surfaces are in contact and the friction applies at that surface only, resisting the motion of the surface. Thus the name unstable equilibrium.

3. The frictional force is directly proportional to the ____________
b) Type of surface used
c) The normal force
d) The horizontal load

Answer: c [Reason:] The frictional force is directly proportional to the vertical force that is being applied normal to the surface of the body. The force of friction is not dependent on the type of the surface. Thus the only thing the frictional force does depend is the normal force.

4. The constant in the equation F = µN is called?
a) Knew
b) Proprietary Constant
c) Coefficient of dry friction
d) Coefficient of static friction

Answer: d [Reason:] The constant in the equation F = µN is known as the coefficient of static friction. This is the proportionality constant and is generally used to express the equation of the frictional force. The value of this constant is generally from 0 to infinite, depending on the surface.

5. The coefficient of static friction does depend upon the surface on which the body is being slide.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a [Reason:] The constant in the equation F = µN is known as the coefficient of static friction. This is the proportionality constant and is generally used to express the equation of the frictional force. The value of this constant is generally from 0 to infinite, depending on the surface.

6. The coefficient of friction is generally determined by ____________
a) Written over the Body
b) Experiments
c) Weighing the body
d) Measuring length of the body

Answer: b [Reason:] The coefficient of the friction is generally determined by the help of experiments. Many experiments are done on the body. Try and error methods are involved. And the final observations are being taken out. Then average of all the final answers resulted in the experiments is done.

7. We have two types of coefficient of friction, one is coefficient of static friction and the other one is the coefficient of the kinetic friction.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a [Reason:] The constant in the equation F = µN is known as the coefficient of static friction. This is the proportionality constant and is generally used to express the equation of the frictional force. And in the same equation the constant is sometimes called coefficient of kinetic friction, when the limiting value of static friction is passed over.

8. The angle of the inclination of wedge over which the block is sliding is determined by which of the following trigonometric function?
a) Tangent Inverse
b) Cosine
c) Sine
d) Secant

Answer: a [Reason:] The angle of the wedge over which the block is being slided is generally taken out by the help of the tangent inverse trigonometric function. It is the ratio of the frictional force to the normal force. This ratio is kept inside the inverse function.

9. The coefficient of kinetic friction is ____________ than coefficient of static friction.
a) Smaller
b) Larger
c) Significantly larger
d) Highly larger

Answer: a [Reason:] The coefficient of kinetic friction is smaller than coefficient of static friction. The main thing about the kinetic one is that it is applied by the surface when the body is in motion. The static one is applied to the body when the body is static and is about to move.

10. The kinetic friction is applied when the body is __________
a) Moving
b) Stopped
c) Just stopped
d) Just started to move

Answer: a [Reason:] The kinetic friction is applied to the body by the surface when the body is moving. This means there is friction present and the coefficient of that friction is smaller than the static one. The main observation is that this is applied when the static friction attends its maximum value.

11. The angle of the inclination of wedge over which the block is sliding and is experiencing the kinetic friction is determined by which of the following trigonometric function?
a) Tangent Inverse
b) Cosine
c) Sine
d) Secant

Answer: a [Reason:] The angle of the wedge over which the block is being slided is generally taken out by the help of the tangent inverse trigonometric function. Whether it may be the static or the kinetic friction, the ratio is the frictional force to the normal force. And this ratio is kept inside the inverse function.

12. The value of coefficient of friction is taken at that moment when the block is at the verge of moving.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a [Reason:] The constant in the equation F = µN is known as the coefficient of static friction. This is the proportionality constant and is generally used to express the equation of the frictional force. And this coefficient is calculated by the help of experiments and is generally observed when the block is at the verge of moving.

13. For determination of the equilibrium state in the free body diagram the basic way of getting the direction of the moment caused by the force is:
a) The use of left hand rule with thumb giving the direction of moment
b) The use of right hand rule with thumb giving the direction of moment
c) The use of right hand rule with forefinger giving the direction of moment
d) The use of left hand rule with forefinger giving the direction of moment

Answer: b [Reason:] The basic way of doing so is to use right hand rule and not the left hand rule. The direction of the moment axis is given by the thumb. The direction of the force is given by the fingers. As we place the fingers on the force and curl towards the rotational direction of the body about the axis.

14. Determine the frictional force acting in the given figure. a) 63.9N
b) 60N
c) 43N
d) 83N

Answer: a [Reason:] The net forces acting on the body is shown by the help of the resultant forces. There are two types, first the frictional and the second is the normal. This is because the resultant forces have the sum of all the forces which are acting on the direction which is same.

15. Which of the following is the force developed between the body and the surface. a) 160N
b) 16N
c) 10N
d) 180N

Answer: a [Reason:] The net forces acting on the body is shown by the help of the resultant forces. There are two types, first the frictional and the second is the normal. This is because the resultant forces have the sum of all the forces which are acting on the direction which is same.

## Set 3

1. The RCRA regulations are mainly focused on _____
a) Prevention
b) Cleanup
c) Contamination
d) Pollution

Answer: a [Reason:] The RCRA regulations are mainly focused on prevention of hazardous waste rather than response or cleanup of wastes that are already released.

2. Waste generated from the cleanup of environmental contamination site is called as _____
a) Contamination waste
b) Remediation waste
c) Pollution waste
d) Hazardous waste

Answer: b [Reason:] Waste generated from the cleanup of environmental contamination site is called as remediation waste and is controlled by RCRA.

3. Remediation activities often involve less concentrated wastes.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a [Reason:] Remediation activities involve less concentrated wastes, one-time activities, and shorter-term activities for cleanup and is overseen by EPA.

4. Which program is used for facility that manages remediation waste?
a) RCRA
b) CERCLA
c) NPL
d) RAP

Answer: d [Reason:] Remedial Action Plan (RAP) is designed for facility that manages remediation waste.

5. Subtitle ____ of RCRA explains about causes of problems and delays for clean-ups.
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D

Answer: c [Reason:] Subtitle C of RCRA explains about causes of problems and delays for clean-ups and also about management requirements.

6. Subtitle C of RCRA explains about LDR. True or False.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a [Reason:] Subtitle C of RCRA explains about Land Disposal restrictions (LDR), Minimum Technological Requirements (MTR) and RCRA permitting procedures for clean-up activities.

7. _____ are the special unit designed by RCRA for TS and disposal of hazardous wastes managed for cleanup.
a) CAMU
b) RAPS
c) LMD
d) CUPS

Answer: a [Reason:] Corrective Action Management Units (CAMU) and Temporary Units (TU) are the special unit designed by RCRA for treatment, storage, and disposal of hazardous wastes managed for cleanup.

8. When was CAMU regulations promulgated?
a) 1991
b) 1992
c) 1993
d) 1994

Answer: c [Reason:] CAMU regulations were published on February 16, 1993 for safe treatment, storage and disposal of hazardous wastes managed for cleanup.

9. _____memorandum describes the distinctions between the final Corrective Action Management Unit.
a) AOC
b) NPL
c) CUP
d) HPS

Answer: a [Reason:] Area of contamination (AOC) policy describes the distinctions between CAMU and encourages use of options to expedite remedial action.

10. _____rule exempts small scale treat-ability studies.
a) TSE
b) NPL
c) CUP
d) HPS

Answer: a [Reason:] Treatability Studies Exclusion rule exempts small scale treat-ability studies from Subtitle C regulation.

## Set 4

1. The final step in RCRA’s cradle-to-grave concept is _____
a) Disposal
b) TSDF
c) STDF
d) TSFF

Answer: b [Reason:] The final stage of RCRA’s cradle to grave concept is the treatment, storage, and disposal facility (TSDF) that trails the generator and transporter in the series of waste management activities.

2. The unit-specific design is required to ______
a) Prevent the release of HW
b) Good housekeeping
c) Analysis
d) Export activities

Answer: a [Reason:] The unit-specific technical requirements are designed to prevent the release of hazardous waste into the environment.

3. TSDFs has to obtain permission in the form of _____ permit.
a) CERCLA
b) SARA
c) RCRA
d) HPL

Answer: c [Reason:] TSDFs are required to obtain RCRA permit form which has the set of technical rules and regulations to be followed for proper management of facility.

4. RCRA permits require facilities to develop emergency plans. True or False.
a) False
b) True

Answer: b [Reason:] According to RCRA permit, TSDFs has to follow instructions to prevent the exposure of chemicals into environment. It includes developing emergency plans, financial backing and training employees.

5. Permits are typically granted for a period up to ____ years.
a) 7
b) 8
c) 9
d) 10

Answer: d [Reason:] TSDFs must receive a permit before they begin construction of the facility and are usually granted for period of 10 years.

6. Transporters of hazardous waste does not require RCRA permit. True or False.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a [Reason:] Business that stores hazardous waste for short period of time, HW transporters activities after emergency does not require RCRA permit.

7. What type of waste does Subtitle D of RCRA regulate?
a) Solid hazardous waste
b) Chemical hazardous waste
c) Non-hazardous solid waste
d) D. Radioactive waste

Answer: c [Reason:] Subtitle D of RCRA regulates non-hazardous solid waste and says about proper management.

8. Storage of incinerable hazardous waste at site is _____ months.
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8

Answer: c [Reason:] The maximum storage of incinerable hazardous waste at site is six months subject to obtaining approvals according to Hazardous waste rules, 2008.

9. External safety audit at an incinerator facility is carried out once in ____ year.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

Answer: b [Reason:] In every incinerator facility, safety audit is done internally every year and externally once in two years.

10. The design of TSDF facilities should follow ______ guidelines.
a) CPCB
b) PCB
c) SPCB
d) LPCB

Answer: a [Reason:] The design of secured landfill facilities as well as liners during the construction stage should strictly follow guidelines from CPCB.

11. Solidification of HW is done at TSDF to reduce _____
a) Area
b) Volume
c) Analysis
d) Record keeping

Answer: b [Reason:] Due to moisture content present in the waste, after certain period of time water from the waste comes out and increases leaching and the volume of waste to be landfilled will be more.

## Set 5

1. A transporter of hazardous waste is subject to regulations under _____
a) RCRA
b) CERCLPA
c) NEPA
d) NPL

Answer: a [Reason:] A transporter of hazardous waste is abided to regulations under RCRA, outlined in Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) part 263.

2. A transporter is prohibited from transporting hazardous waste if they do not have an ID number. True or False.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a [Reason:] A transporter is prohibited from transporting hazardous waste if they do not have an ID number issued by EPA.

3. EPA transportation ID is site-specific. True or False.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a [Reason:] EPA generator ID is site-specific, whereas, transporter ID numbers are assigned to the transportation company as a whole.

4. _____ is designed to track hazardous waste from the time it leaves the generator facility to TSDF.
a) Waste manifest system
b) Chemical analysis
c) Manifest
d) NPL

Answer: a [Reason:] EPA’s hazardous waste manifest system is designed to track hazardous waste from the time it leaves the generator facility for the safe management of hazardous waste.

5. How long does the transporter must keep a copy of the manifest?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

Answer: c [Reason:] The transporter must keep a copy of the manifest for 3 years which is signed and dated by the recipient.

6. _____transporters are exempted from the manifest requirements.
a) NPL
b) SQG
c) LQG
d) MQG

Answer: b [Reason:] Transporters who handle certain recycled or reclaimed wastes generated by small quantity generators are exempted from the manifest requirements.

7. In case of transporting SQG waste the vehicle used to transport the waste must be owned by ____
a) Recycling facility
b) Exporter
c) Importer
d) Trans-boundary owner

Answer: a [Reason:] In case of transporting SQG waste the vehicle used to transport the waste must be owned by the recycling facility as described in 40 CFR section 262.20 (e)(i)(ii).

8. The regulations governing imports and exports of hazardous waste found in ____
a) 40 CFR
b) 41 CFR
c) 42 CFR
d) 43 CFR

Answer: a [Reason:] The regulations governing imports and exports of hazardous waste are established in in 40 CFR part 262, sub-part E.

9. Vehicle used for transportation shall be in accordance with ____
a) NPL
b) MVA
c) HPS
d) RCRA

Answer: b [Reason:] Vehicle used for transportation shall be in accordance with the provisions under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988.

10. Transporter should have valid ____ during transportation.
a) PUCC
b) NPL
c) MVA
d) RCRA

Answer: a [Reason:] Transporter should have valid Pollution Under Control Certificate (PUCC) during waste transportation phase.

11. Vehicles shall be painted preferably in ____ colour for identification.
a) Red
b) White
c) Yellow
d) Blue

Answer: d [Reason:] Vehicles shall be painted preferably in blue colour with white strip of 15 to 30 cm width running centrally all over to facilitate easy identification.

12. Which of the following should be provided utmost importance while transporting HW?
a) Emergency number
b) Waste analysed
c) Vehicle ID
d) Transport ID