Multiple choice question for engineering
1. Introduction of DNA molecules into the recipient organism is termed as:
2. Many bacterial species are having a natural ability to take up the exogenous DNA material. Which of the statement is not correct in regard to it?
a) This ability is termed as competence
b) It is not limited to particular growth phases
c) The bacteria may develop new biochemical abilities under special conditions such as nutrient deprivation
d) Induction of specific set of bacterial proteins may take place
3. Which of the statements hold true for conjugation?
a) Conjugation is the natural process of transferring DNA from one species to another
b) It is the artificial process in case the cells are not able to take them up naturally
c) The plasmids are transferred from one cell to another by physical contact
d) The plasmids are transferred from one cell to another by chemical means
4. F plasmid is often used in conjugation. The correct statement is?
a) The F plasmid encodes the factor which is transferred from one cell to another
b) The factor encoded by the F plasmid is called as Filamentous (F) factor
c) It is transferred from one cell to another by filament
d) The bacteria must belong to same species to carry out the conjugation
5. Plasmids can be classified into how many types depending on the genes present for their transformation?
6. Viral infection can also be used to take up the DNA by the cells. The statement is true or false?
7. Chemical transformation refers to the methods which use chemicals in order to carry out transformation. Which of the following statements is true with respect to it?
a) Chemical transformation decreases the efficiency of transformation as compared to natural transformation
b) Ice cold calcium solution followed by heat shock is responsible for affecting the efficiency of DNA uptake
c) The mechanism responsible for it named as ‘the heat shock model’
d) Other complex mixtures such as those containing Manganese and hexamine cobalt can’t be used to affect the efficiency
8. Electroporation is also used for taking up the DNA by the cells. It constitutes of:
a) inserting the DNA into the cells via an electric shock
b) increased efficiency than both natural and chemical methods
c) causing the least amount of damage in comparison to other methods
d) decreased efficiency than both natural and chemical methods
9. Transformation carried out using a particle gun is known as biolistic transformation. It falls under which category of transformation?
10. The particle gun method consists of which of the following steps?
a) The DNA of interest is absorbed onto microprojectile beads
b) These beads are often made of aluminium
c) The explosion in a gun propels a macroprojectile forward which in turn propels microprojectile beads
d) The macroprojectiles and microprojectiles both cross the perforated plate and hit the target tissue behind it
1. How will we choose which transformation method is to be used?
a) It depends on the available conditions for the reaction to take place
b) It depends on the efficiency which is required to be obtained
c) All the transformation methods can be used equivalently
d) Each reaction has been assigned a particular transformation method
2. The cell in which the recombinant molecules are propagated is termed as:
3. Some mutations are present which assist the uptake of DNA. Which of the statement is incorrect for it?
a) deoR is such a mutation which assists the uptake of DNA
b) It is a transcriptional regulator
c) It is having DNA binding activity
d) It controls expression of a set of genes involved ribonucleoside catabolism
4. Endogenous DNA-degrading system is not essential in determining transformation efficiency. The given statement is true or false?
5. Which of the following is true for K strain for E. coli?
a) It contains of restriction-modification system which is encoded by hsDMRS locus
b) hsDR encodes for endonuclease which is responsible for cleaving the DNA sequence containing –AACGCNNTGC-
c) Cleavage is carried out when the second A is non methylated
d) hsDR mutation can be used for cleavage of incoming unprotected DNA
6. Methylation dependent restriction system (MDRS) are included in which class of restriction enzymes?
a) Type I
b) Type II
c) Type III
d) They are the product of mcrA, mcrB or mrr loci
7. Choose the incorrect statement in respect to dam and dcm genes?
a) Their enzymes are responsible for methylation of DNA
b) Dam protein methylates cytosine in –GATC-
c) Dcm methylates cytosine in-CCAGG- and –CCTGG- sequences
d) The extent of methylation also has effects on the efficiency with which the other restriction enzymes cleave the DNA in vitro
8. How many recombination systems are present in E. coli?
9. Disablement is also done in plasmids. Choose the correct statement.
a) The strains carrying out the recombinant plasmids should not escape outside
b) Preferred strains are having mutations which allow their growth in wild
c) Mutations confer prototrophy
d) If the recombinants escape outside, there is no such harm
10. endA mutation is often induced in host molecules. Choose the correct statement.
a) It activates the gene for DNA-specific endonuclease
b) It enhances the yield of plasmid DNA preparations only
c) It enhances the quality of plasmid DNA preparations only
d) It enhances both the quality and yield of plasmid DNA preparations
11. lacZΔM15 represents:
a) fully present lacZ gene
b) it is not required in alpha complementation
c) it represents lacZ gene with M15 mutation
d) it is partially deleted lacZ gene which is needed for alpha complementation
12. The correct statement with respect to lacIq is:
a) It is mutant of lac repressor gene and decreases the level of repressor
b) It doesn’t controls the lacZ gene
c) It is important for the vectors to replicate in a low copy number
d) It doesn’t titrates out the repressor produced by wild type lac-I gene
1. The disease crown gall is caused by which bacteria?
a) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
b) Agrobacterium rhizogenes
c) Both of the above given bacterium cause the disease crown gall
d) Any bacteria belonging to genera Rhizobium
2. Agrobacterium tumefaciens form ______ plasmids and Agrobacterium rhizogenes form _______ plasmids.
a) root inducing, tumour inducing
b) tumour inducing, root inducing
c) tumour inducing, shoot inducing
d) non-tumour inducing, shoot inducing
3. The region which is transferred from bacterium to the nucleus of the plant cell is called as T-DNA. Is the given statement true or false?
4. Transfer of T DNA depends on a set of genes called as ______ if they are present on ________
a) vir, chromosome
b) chv, tumour inducing plasmid
c) chv, chromosome
d) vir, whether they are present on tumour inducing plasmid or chromosome
5. What is the function of onc genes in TDNA?
a) Tumour suppressing potential
b) Tumour inducing potential
c) Either tumour inducing or suppressing depending on the conditions
d) Act as replicative genes
6. Which of the plant growth regulators are produced by TDNA?
a) Salicyclic acid
c) Cytokinin and Auxin
d) Jasmonic Acid
7. If a small intermediate vector system is used along with a selectable marker, then it is called as:
a) fusion plasmids
b) hybrid plasmids
c) co-integrative plasmids
d) complex plasmids
8. Binary vector systems can also be used for transferring the DNA via agrobacterium. Is the given statement true or false?
9. If transfer of DNA from Agrobacterium to plants is done via incubation of explanted material and the vector containing DNA of interest and then selection is done via selectable marker then this method is called as:
d) floral dipping
10. If gene of interest is inserted into protoplasts but the transformation is not stable, then it is called as __________ expression systems.
11. 35S promoter is obtained from:
a) Tobacco mosaic virus
b) Cauliflower mosaic virus
12. Which of the following promoter is having high tissue specificity?
a) 35S promoter
b) nos promoter
c) both of the above given promoters are having high specificity
d) neither of the promoter is having high specificity
13. What is the function of glyphosate?
a) It is a fungicide
b) It is an herbicide
c) It is an enzyme used in place of glucose as a carbon source
d) It is used for adding phosphate groups
14. Baciullus thuringiensis is used for production of toxins which can be used as:
15. Which of the following compounds control ripening in tomatoes?
d) Jasmonic acid
1. What will be the consequence of not having an origin of replication (ori) in the vector?
a) If an ori is absent, replication of vector would not take place
b) As the cells divide after taking up the vector, both the daughter cells would be having vector
c) A colony of transformed colonies is observed
d) The vector won’t be taken up by the cell
2. It is required to distinguish between the cells that have taken up the vector and that have not. It is done by using:
a) multiple cloning site
b) origin of replication
c) high copy number
d) selectable marker
3. Multiple cloning site (MCS) is defined as:
a) site within the plasmid which contains site for many restriction enzymes
b) site within the plasmid which contains site for many restriction enzymes and they are not present anywhere else in the plasmid
c) as the site containing many sites for only one restriction enzyme
d) cloning many inserts together
4. Size of the vector is related to having a suitable single restriction site. The statement is true or false?
5. If a restriction site is 6 nucleotides long, what are the chances of finding it in a vector?
a) Once every 46 base pairs
b) Once every 64 base pairs
c) Once every 24 base pairs
d) Once every 16 base pairs
6. Which of the statement is true for pBR322?
a) It contains only an ampicillin resistance gene
b) It contains both ampicillin resistant and tetracycline resistant gene
c) The cloning site is present only in the ampicillin resistant gene
d) It is a natural vector
7. If a plasmid is having two antibiotic resistant genes, say ampicillin resistant and chloramphenicol resistant. If the plasmid grows in ampicillin containing medium but not in chloramphenicol, what can be concluded?
a) The insert is not present in any of the gene
b) The insert is present in ampicillin gene but not in chloramphenicol gene
c) The insert is present in choramphenicol gene but not in ampicillin gene
d) The insert is present between both of the genes
8. If high copy number is there, the replication is called as ______ and if low copy number is there the replication is called as ______. Fill in the blanks accordingly,
a) stringent, relaxed
b) relaxed, stringent
c) relaxed, relaxed
d) stringent, stringent
9. Chloramphenicol amplification is carried out in various plasmids. Which of the statement is incorrect for it?
a) It is used for increasing copy number in plasmids containing pMB1 origin
b) Chloramphenicol promotes bacterial protein synthesis
c) The protein synthesis is responsible for chromosomal DNA replication
d) Chromosomal DNA replication is related to cell division
10. The phenomenon of not allowing the recombinants to escape into the environment is termed as:
1. When YAC is used to clone DNA. What is the size of the DNA that can be cloned?
a) Large (upto megabases)
b) Small (upto few hundred bases)
c) No size restriction
d) Medium (upto kilobases)
2. TEL is the ______ sequence derived from the ends of ribosomal RNA-encoding molecules from the macromolecules of the protozoan Tetrahyena.
c) can be either centromeric or telomeric
d) can be present anywhere on the chromosome
3. Choose the incorrect statement for YAC vectors.
a) The YAC molecule is approximately 10 kb in size
b) It contains both yeast origin of replication and prokaryotic origin of replication
c) It doesn’t contains ampicillin resistant gene
d) It contains TEL sequence
4. If YAC DNA is digested with BamHI and ECoRI, how many fragments are generated?
5. Transformed cells in the case of YAC can be selected by the presence of both URA3 and TRP1 genes. Is the given statement true or false?
6. GAL1 is a controllable promoter and is obtained from genes for galactose metabolism. It is known for encoding ______
c) Both UDP-galactose-4-empirase and galactokinase
7. Transcription of GAL1 and GAL10 is suppressed in the presence of _______
8. How many deletion variations of GAL1 promoter are there?
9. Promoters such as GAL1 can be used to direct synthesis of either unmodified or fusion proteins. Is the given statement true or false?
10. Which of the following are advantageous to be used for expression of eukaryotic cells?
a) Prokaryotic systems
b) Yeast cells
c) Fungi cells
d) Algae cells