Multiple choice question for engineering
Set 1
1. In which unit operation, gases are released or absorbed in water?
a) Gas transfer
b) Ion transfer
c) Solute stabilization
d) Solids Transfer
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] In Gas transfer, gases are released or absorbed in water by exposing the water through aeration under normal, increased or reduced pressure.
2. How many types of aerators are commonly used in the treatment of water?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] There are 4 types of aerators namely Gravity aerators, Spray aerators, Diffusers and Mechanical aerators.
3. Which of the following process is used to remove the colloidal particles from water?
a) Chemical precipitation
b) Chemical coagulation
c) Ion exchange
d) Adsorption
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] Chemical coagulation is used to remove colloidal particles by the use of coagulants which increase the particle size and they settle down.
3. Flocculation of iron from water by addition of lime is an example of which of the following process?
a) Chemical precipitation
b) Chemical coagulation
c) Ion exchange
d) Adsorption
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] Chemical precipitation removes the dissolved substance from water through ion transfer where precipitation of dissolved impurities takes place.
4. In which unit operation objectionable solutes are converted into unobjectionable forms without removal?
a) Gas transfer
b) Ion transfer
c) Solute stabilization
d) Solids Transfer
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] In solute stabilization, water is stabilized by chlorination or liming so that objectionable solutes are converted into unobjectionable form.
5. In which form of solute stabilization, hydrogen sulfide in water is oxidized into sulfate?
a) Chlorination
b) Liming
c) Re-carbonation
d) Super-chlorination
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] By the process of chlorination, water gets stabilized by the conversion of hydrogen sulfide into sulfate.
6. Which form of solute stabilization occurs when water passes through limestone?
a) Chlorination
b) Liming
c) Re-carbonation
d) Super-chlorination
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] When water passes through limestone, carbon dioxide in excess get converted into soluble bicarbonate.
7. In which process, excess lime is converted into bicarbonate?
a) Chlorination
b) Liming
c) Re-carbonation
d) Super-chlorination
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] By Re-carbonation of water softened by excess lime treatment, excess lime is converted into bicarbonate.
8. By which process, odour producing substances is oxidized?
a) Chlorination
b) Liming
c) Re-carbonation
d) Super-chlorination
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] By addition of chlorine dioxide to water, odour producing substances are oxidized.
9. Solids are removed from the water by which of the following unit operation?
a) Inter facial contact
b) Solid stabilization
c) Ion transfer
d) Solids transfer
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] During solids transfer, solids are removed from water by straining, sedimentation, flotation and filtration.
10. State whether the following statement is True or False.
Dealkalization results in removal of all the ions from the water.
a) True
b) False
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] Dealkalization results in removal of hydroxides, carbonates and bicarbonates of calcium, sodium and magnesium from water. Demineralization results in removal of all the ions from the water.
11. Organic contaminants are removed from the water by the process of ______
a) Water softening
b) Demineralization
c) Absorption
d) Adsorption
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] Organic contaminants are removed from the water by the attraction and accumulation of one substance on the surface of another.
Set 2
1. The average quantity of water (in lpcd) required for domestic purposes according to IS code is ________
a) 100
b) 120
c) 70
d) 135
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] The average domestic water demand in India is 135 litres per capita per day. For developed countries, average domestic water demand is around 340 lpcd because they live a luxurious life.
2. The average consumption of water required in factories in lpcd is ___________
a) 10-15
b) 20-30
c) 30-45
d) 70-80
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] The average water consumption in factories is 30lpcd when no bathrooms are required and 45lpcd when bathrooms are required.
3. In which type of water demand, minimum average consumption of water takes place?
a) Domestic water demand
b) Industrial water demand
c) Institutional and commercial water demand
d) Fire demand
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] The minimum average water consumption takes place in fire demand. It accounts to 1lpcd which is very less but this water is required in very less duration.
4. What is the minimum water pressure available at fire hydrants?
a) 80-100kN/m²
b) 100-150kN/m²
c) 40-60kN/m²
d) 150-200kN/m²
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] The minimum water presure available at fire hydrants is 100-150kN/m² i.e 10-15m of water head and it should be maintained for 4 to 5 hours.
5. Match list 1(calculation of fire demand) with list 2 (formulae) and select the correct answer using the codes given below.
| List 1 | List 2 |
|---|---|
| A. Kuchling’s Formula | 1) Q = 3182√P |
| B. Freeman’s Formula | 2) Q = 1136[P/5 +10] |
| C. Buston’s Formula | 3) Q = 5663√P |
| D. Central Congested High Value City | 4) Q = 4637√P[1-.01√P] |
where Q = quantity of water, P = population in thousands
CODE
A B C D
a) 1 2 3 4
b) 2 3 4 1
c) 2 1 4 3
d) 1 2 4 3
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] Kuchling’s formula is used when the population of the city exceeds 50,000.
When the population of the city is less than 2 lakh, the above formula for central congested high value city is used.
6. What is the fire demand of the city of 1lakh population by Buston’s formula?
a) 5663
b) 56630
c) 566300
d) 5663000
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] By Buston’s formula , Q = 5663√P where P in thousands. Here, P =100, Q = 5663√100 => Q = 56630.
7. Water lost in theft and waste contributes to how much % of total consumption?
a) 5
b) 10
c) 15
d) 20
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] Water loss in thefts and wastes contributes to 15% of total consumption, which includes the water loss due to leakage or stolen due to illegal connection.
8. Which is the correct statement regarding per capita demand?
a) Daily water required by an individual
b) Water required for various purposes by a person
c) Water required by an individual in a year
d) Annual average amount of daily water required by one person
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] The per capita demand is the annual average amount of daily water required by one person. It is denoted by q in litres per day per person.
9. What are the factors affecting per capita demand?
a) Size of city
b) Size of city, habit of people
c) Cost of water, quality of water, size of city
d) Cost of water, quality of water, size of city, habit of people
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] Increase in cost of water, quality of water and size of the city will result in more consumption of water. Poor habits of people in the utilization of water will also cause greater consumption.
10. Which of the following statement is correct?
a) Rich class consumes less water
b) Intermittent water supplies leads to less water consumption
c) Loss of water is more if the pressure in the distribution system is less
d) Water consumption is less in flush system
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] Rich class consumes more water, loss of water is more if the pressure in distribution system is more, water consumption is more in flush system and b option is the only correct statement.
11. If the annual average hourly demand of the city is 10000m3, what is the maximum hourly consumption?
a) 2700 m3
b) 27000 m3
c) 270000 m
d) 2700000 m3
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] Maximum hourly demand = 2.7 * annual average hourly demand
=2.7 * 10000
=27000m3.
12. If in a city, the maximum daily draft is 25MLD, fire draft is 35MLD and maximum hourly draft is 40MLD, what is the coincident draft?
a) 60MLD
b) 40MLD
c) 25MLD
d) 35MLD
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] Maximum daily draft +fire draft = 25 + 35 = 60MLD
Maximum hourly draft = 40MLD
Coincident draft is maximum of maximum draft draft + fire draft and maximum hourly draft =60MLD.
13. What is the design period for the water treatment unit?
a) 10 years
b) 15 years
c) 20 years
d) 30 years
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] Water treatment unit is designed for 15 years and its design discharge is a maximum daily demand.
14. What is the design discharge for intake structures?
a) Maximum daily demand
b) Maximum hourly demand
c) Maximum weekly demand
d) Average daily demand
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] Intake structures and the pipe mains that carry water from intake structures to treatment plant are designed for maximum daily demand.
15. In which of the following units, design period is maximized?
a) Distribution system
b) Demand reservoir
c) Water treatment unit
d) Pipe mains
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] Distribution system is designed for 30 years, the demand reservoir for 50 years, the water treatment unit for 15 years and the pipe mains for 30 years.
A B C D
a) 1 2 3 4
b) 2 3 4 1
c) 2 1 4 3
d) 1 2 4 3
Set 3
1. During rolling process, the thickness of workpiece squeezed is called what?
a) Shaft
b) Bore
c) Draft
d) Core
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] During rolling process, the workpiece gets squeezed, causing the thickness of the workpiece to reduce. This reduced thickness is called as draft.
2. With an increase in starting thickness, how would it affect the reduction?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Won’t change
d) Not related
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] When the starting thickness of the workpiece gets increased, the reduction correspondingly gets decreased.
3. How is draft calculated?
a) Difference between starting and final thickness
b) Sum of starting and final thickness
c) Product of starting and final thickness
d) Ratio of starting and final thickness
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] Draft is calculated as, the difference between the starting thickness of the workpiece and the final thickness of the workpiece.
4. Which of the following has most magnitude?
a) Slip velocity
b) Surface velocity
c) Entering velocity
d) Exiting velocity
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] Exiting velocity, among the given four velocities, that is slip velocity, surface velocity, entering velocity and exiting velocity, the exiting velocity is considered to be having most magnitude.
5. Which of the following has least magnitude?
a) Slip velocity
b) Surface velocity
c) Entering velocity
d) Exiting velocity
Answer
Answer: c
6. When a metal is entering, how are the width and the length of the workpiece related to each other?
a) Direct relation
b) Inverse relation
c) Exponential relation
d) No relation
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] When the metal is entering, the width of the metal is inversely proportional to the length of the workpiece, that is, with an increase in the width of the metal, there would be a decrease in the length of the workpiece and vice versa.
7. Roll velocity is lesser than exiting velocity
a) True
b) False
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] Exiting velocity is has the most magnitude when compared to the other velocities, and is higher than the roll velocity.
8. When a material is being rolled, the perpendicular force on the arc is called what?
a) Thickness force
b) Roll force
c) Angle force
d) Die force
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] There is a force perpendicular to the arc which is in contact, when the rolls are pressurizing the material. This force is called as roll force.
9. How would the draft be affected, if the radius of the roller is decreased?
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Won’t change
d) Not related
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] Radius of the roller is directly related with the draft. Hence, with a decrease in the roller radius, there is a decrease in the draft value and vice versa.
10. There is no slipping between roller and workpiece.
a) True
b) False
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] There is a certain amount of slipping that is observed, between the roller and the workpiece. The magnitude of slipping is measured by the term called as Forward slip.
Set 4
1. Secretion of overexpressed proteins by fusion to a secretion signal can be useful because it helps in bringing about correct _______ and _____ protein folding.
a) glycosylation, enhance
b) glycosylation, not affect
c) phosphorylation, enhance
d) phosphorylation, not affect
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] Secretion of overexpressed proteins can be useful because it helps in bringing about correct glycosylation and also enhances protein folding. It also assists in purification.
2. The enzyme used for breaking down of sucrose into glucose and fructose is called as:
a) sucrase
b) glucanase
c) maltase
d) invertase
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] Invertase is the enzyme which is used for breaking down of sucrose into glucose and fructose. Invertase is used as a secretion signal and is product of SUC2 gene.
3. For introduction of exogenous DNA into S.cerevisiae, ______ is added along with polyethylene glycol and heat shock treatment.
a) calcium chloride
b) sodium acetate
c) lithium acetate
d) magnesium chloride
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] There are mainly three methods which are used for introduction of exogenous DNA into S.cervisiae. Lithium acetate is added along with polyethylene glycol and heat shock treatment.
4. Protoplast transformation is less time consuming than lithium acetate for transformation. Is the given statement true or false?
a) True
b) False
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] Protoplast transformation is a method used for carrying out transformation but is more time consuming than method based on lithium acetate. But protoplast transformation gives a higher efficiency than method based on lithium acetate.
5. Schizosaccharomyces pombe is yeast and it reproduces by:
a) budding
b) fissing
c) either budding or fissing
d) a method of reproduction other than budding or fissing
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] Schizosaccharomyces pombe is yeast which produces by fission but other yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae reproduces by budding.
6. The leu1+ marker encodes which enzyme?
a) orotidine-5’-phosphate decarboxylase
b) beta isopropylmalate dehydrogenase
c) either of the above two enzymes
d) both of the above enzymes
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] The leu1+ marker encodes beta isopropylmalate dehydrogenase. Orotidine-5’-phosphate decarboxylase is another selectable marker and is encoded by ura4+ gene.
7. The replacement of one plasmid by another by introduction of the second plasmid into strain containing the first, followed by removal of the first by counterselection is known as:
a) shuffle vector
b) plasmid shuffle
c) counterselection plasmid
d) combination plasmid
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] Plasmid shuffle is the system where one plasmid is replaced by another via introduction of the second plasmid into the strain containing first. It is followed by the removal of first by counterselction.
8. Promoters can be divided basically into how many types?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] Promoters can be mainly divided into two types mainly and these are known as constitutive and inducible promoters.
9. nmt1+ gene is used for _____ biosynthesis.
a) uracil
b) adenine
c) cytosine
d) thiamine
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] nmt1+ gene is used for thiamine biosynthesis. It is the gene from which inducible promoter is obtained.
10. The promoter from fbp1+ gene is suppressed in the presence of glucose. Is the given statement true or false?
a) True
b) False
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] The promoter from fbp1+ gene is greatly suppressed in the presence of glucose and is activated in absence of glucose. In place of glucose, glycerol is used as a carbon source.
11. Species which can grow on _______ as a carbon source are called as methylotropic.
a) methylase
b) methanol
c) methane
d) methanoic acid
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] Methylotropic species are those species which can grow on methanol as a carbon source. It induces expression of genes for enzymes such as methanol oxidase.
Set 5
1. Often the DNA or RNA needs to be removed from the gel to the solid support. The process can be termed as:
a) Blotting
b) Transfer
c) Chromatography
d) DNA purification
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] At times, the DNA or RNA needs to be transferred from the gel to the solid support for various purposes such as analyses. This process is termed as blotting.
2. Which of the following steps is not included in the transferring of DNA?
a) The gel containing the DNA is immersed in the buffer in the reservoir
b) The buffer flows up through the gel via a wick
c) Membrane is placed over the gel
d) The nucleic acids are dissolved in the buffer and are obtained from it via pipetting
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] The gel containing the DNA molecules is immersed in the buffer. The membrane is placed over the gel. The buffer rises from the wick and passes through the gel. It carries along with it, the nucleic acids and they are then trapped by the membrane. The membrane can be washed further in order to obtain the DNA.
3. If the DNA samples are to be analyzed, the membrane should be studied. Which of them is correct for it?
a) The membrane should not be treated with UV or heat
b) The membrane is further immersed in the buffer containing labelled nucleic acids which are known as strips
c) Labelled nucleic acids bind to the sequences which are same as the sequences present on the membrane
d) The binded sequences can be visualized by autoradiography
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] The membrane should be treated with UV or heated. It ensures the cross linking of the DNA molecules on the membrane. The labelled nuclei in the buffer are called as probe. These, sequences bind to the complementary sequences on the membrane and can be visualized via autoradiography.
4. In the case DNA is transferred from gel to the membrane, it is known as:
a) southern blot
b) western blot
c) northern blot
d) south-western blot
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] For the DNA to be transferred, it is called as southern blot. If RNA is to be transferred it is called as northern blot. For transferring of proteins it is called as western blot.
5. Oligonucleotides can’t be referred to:
a) undefined sequences
b) sequences that can be used as PCR primers
c) sequences that can be used in DNA sequencing
d) sequences that can be used in identifying complementary DNA molecules
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] Oligonucleotide are the defined sequences which are having various purposes such as primers in PCR. They are also used in DNA sequencing. Oligonucleotides can be used as probes in complementary base pairing reactions.
6. Oligonucleotides are synthesized chemically. Which of the following step is involved in oligonucleotide synthesis?
a) Nucleotide addition is done by adding many nucleotides at a time
b) The coupling reaction should involve water
c) Only one type of nucleotides can be added at a time
d) Unblocking of the reactive groups leads to addition of nucleotides
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] Oligonucleotide synthesis is done on the basis of blocking the reactive groups, so that only one nucleotide is added as the unblocking is done. The coupling reaction should not involve water because than water will do nucleophilic reaction. A mixture of nucleotides can be added at a time.
7. If the known DNA sequences are immobilized onto a solid support, it is called as:
a) Blot
b) Microarray
c) DNA plate
d) Column
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] In the case known DNA sequences are immobilized on a solid support, the arrangement is called as microarray. If unknown sequences are immobilized, it is called as a blot.
8. In the case of microarrays:
a) Often the whole organism is not sequenced
b) Changes in transcript level can be studied in response to environmental changes
c) RNA is synthesized only after the property which is to be studied is inculcated
d) DNA is synthesized for this RNA by transciptase
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] In microarryas, often the whole organism is sequenced on the solid support such as slide. The change in the transcript level can be studied in response to environmental changes. The RNA is synthesized both for before and after the change is to be studied. DNA is synthesized for both RNAs by reverse transciptase.
9. The DNA is labelled with fluorescent dyes in order to study the level of transcription. The given statement is true or false?
a) True
b) False
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] The DNA is labelled with fluorescent dyes. The amount of fluorescence they give corresponds to the level of transcription. The dyes which are often used are Cy3 and Cy5.
10. If undefined sequences are immobilized, the set up is called as:
a) Blot
b) Microarray
c) Plate
d) DNA chip
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] In the case undefined sequences are immobilized; the set up is called as DNA chip. They can be used by synthesis of oligonucleotides in situ using photolithography technology from the microelectronics industry.