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# Multiple choice question for engineering

## Set 1

1. What will be the length of job in m if diameter of big end is 100mm and diameter of small end is 60mm for a taper angle of 1.14 degree?
a) 5
b) 2
c) 7
d) 1

Answer: d [Reason:] Length be calculated by using- tan (half taper angle) = (D-d)/ (2*L) where ‘D’ is the external diamter, ‘d’ is the internal diameter, ‘L’ is the length of job.

2. The job of total length 300mm is tapered turned on lathe using tailstock set over method. The two diameters obtained are 80mm and 500mm and length of taper was 200mm only. Tail stock set over is equal to
a) 10
b) 15
c) 20
d) 25

Answer: b [Reason:] Tail stock set over= L*(D-d)/ (2*l), where ‘D’ is the external diameter, ‘d’ is the internal diameter, ‘L’ is the length of job..

3. A job of total length 800mm is tapered turned on lathe using tailstock set over method. The two diameters obtained are 450mm and 500mm and length of taper was 700mm only. Tail stock set over is equal to
a) 10.12
b) 15.32
c) 20.32
d) 28.57

Answer: d [Reason:] Tail stock set over= L*(D-d)/ (2*l), where ‘D’ is the external diameter, ‘d’ is the internal diameter, ‘L’ is the length of job..

4. A cast iron piece of total length 100mm is needed to be tapered for a length of 40mm using swiveling the compound rest method. Diameter of job is 20mm and smaller end have nearly zero diameter. What should the angle in degrees by which compound rest should be rotated?
a) 20.36
b) 45.21
c) 14.03
d) 5.23

Answer: c [Reason:] tan (Angle of rotation of compound rest) = (D-d)/ (2*L), where ‘D’ is the external diameter, ‘d’ is the internal diameter, ‘L’ is the length of job..

5. Distance measured normal to the axis of part, between crest and root of thread is known as
a) Pitch
b) Depth of threads
d) Major diameter

Answer: b [Reason:] Depth of threads is the distance measured normal to the axis of part, between crest and root of thread.

6. Distance from one point of thread to the next corresponding point is known as
a) Pitch
b) Depth of threads
d) Major diameter

Answer: b [Reason:] Pitch is the distance from one point of thread to the next corresponding point.

7. If the nut rotated in clockwise direction and advances axially, then threads present in nut are
a) Right Handed threaded
b) left handed thread
c) Right handed and left handed both
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a [Reason:] In right handed thread nut rotated in clockwise direction and advances axially where as its reverse takes place in left handed threads.

8. Lead of nut is 2mm and has double start threads. What is the pitch of nut?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 6

9. A thread has number of starts equal to one. Which of the following is most correct about thread?
a) Pitch > lead
c) Pitch < lead

10. Let screw of 10mm pitch is needed to be cut on lathe machine. Lead screw of lathe has pitch of 6mm. Which of the following statement is correct?
a) Speed of lead screw is greater than speed of spindle
b) Speed of lead screw is less that speed of spindle
c) Speed of lead screw is equal to speed of spindle
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a [Reason:] Speed of lead screw increase in relative to speed of spindle as many times the required pitch is smaller than pitch of lead screw.

## Set 2

1. A new phase is given for the separation by distillation.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b [Reason:] Here, the separation is done by vaporization.

2. Consider a sugar solution[ Sugar + Water]; On vaporization water only evaporate since sugar is________
a) Volatile
b) Non-Volatile
c) Cryogenic
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b [Reason:] There is no boiling point for the Non-volatile compound. So the sugar has no vapour pressure.

3. Distillation is possible only if the solution components are_____________
a) Volatile
b) Non-volatile
c) Cryogenic
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a [Reason:] Since the distillation is done by vaporization the components should be volatile for separation.

4. No further process required for _____________
a) Absorption
b) Extraction
c) Distillation
d) All the mentioned

Answer: c [Reason:] Distillation is the only process gives the pure component separation.

5. Look out the distribution curve, if the line PM is lesser than shown the separation is more
a) True
b) False

Where, x,y are the concentrations in mole fractions

Answer: a [Reason:] The separation will be less. Since the distribution curve represent the volatility variance.

6. In a solution (A and B); The vapour pressure of A is 260 mmHg and B is 360 mmHg; Find the relative volatility?
a) 0.72
b) 1.38
c) 2
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a [Reason:] Relative volatility= vapour pressure of A/ Vapour pressure of B = 260/360 =0.72.

7. If the gas phase composition of a component A is 0.65 and its relative volatility is 2. Find the liquid phase composition.
a) 0.48
b) 0.58
c) 0.68
d) 0.78

Answer: a [Reason:] Relative volatility= 0.65/(1-0.65) * (1-x)/x 2= 1.85 * (1-x)/x ; x= 0.48.

8. The component A and B has the same boiling point. Can the separation is done by ordinary separation?
a) True
b) False

Answer: b [Reason:] Separation cannot be done if the two components have the same vapour pressure.

9. Find the relative volatility, if x, y are the concentrations in mole fraction.

a) 6.92
b) 0.14
c) 1.88
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a [Reason:] y=0.85; x=0.45 ; relative volatility= (0.85/0.15) * (0.55/0.45) = 6.92.

10. The possibility of separation will be more if the separation factor is greater than 1.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a [Reason:] Since if relative volatility is equals to 1. The separation is not possible since the boiling point of the two components will be same.

11. Find the vapour pressure of a component A in an ideal mixture, if its liquid composition and the partial pressure is 0.65 and 260 mmHg.
a) 260 mmHg
b) 400 mmHg
c) 760 mmHg
d) Cannot determine

Answer: b [Reason:] For an ideal solution, Partial pressure = vapour pressure x mole fraction Vapour pressure= (260/0.65)=400 mmHg.

12. Consider an ideal vapour-liquid binary mixture, find the total pressure if the vapour pressure of A is 260 mmHg and the vapour pressure of B is 520 mmHg and the composition of A in mole fraction is 0.55.
a) 177 mmHg
b) 277 mmHg
c) 377 mmHg
d) 477 mmHg

Answer: c [Reason:] Total pressure = (vapour pressure of A * mole fraction) + vapour pressure of B*( 1- mole fraction) = 377 mmHg.

13. Guess the exact relation between the vapour phase mole fraction and relative volatility.
a) y= A*x/(1+x(A+1))
b) y= A*x/(1-x(A-1))
c) y= A*x/(1+x(A-1))
d) y= A*x/(1-x(A+1))
where, A – relative volatility

Answer: c [Reason:] A= (y/1-y)*((1-x)/x) On rearranging, y= A*x/(1+x(A-1).

## Set 3

1. The SITH (Static Induction Thyristor) is a
a) 4 terminal, self-controlled device
b) 3 terminal, self-controlled device
c) 4 terminal, un-controllable device
d) 3 terminal, un-controllable device

Answer: b [Reason:] It is just like a GTO but it is p-n-n device.

2. The SITH has
a) gate, anode, cathode
b) base, collector, emitter
c) base, anode, cathode
d) gate, emitter, collector

Answer: a [Reason:] The SITH has 3 terminals viz. gate, anode and cathode.

3. The SITH is a
a) p+ n+ diode with p+ electrodes
b) n+ p+ n diode with p+ electrodes
c) p+ n n+ diode with p+ electrodes
d) p n+ p+ n with p+ electrodes

Answer: c [Reason:] The Static Induction Thyristor is a p+ n+ diode with p+ electrodes.

4. The SITH is a
a) normally-off device
b) normally-on device
c) uncontrollable device
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b [Reason:] The SITH unlike other devices is a normally on-device which can be switched off as and when required.

5. The SITH will act as a diode when the
a) anode is forward biased with zero gate-cathode voltage
b) anode is reversed biased with zero gate-cathode voltage
c) anode is forward biased and a positive gate voltage is applied
d) anode is forward biased and a negative gate voltage is applied

Answer: a [Reason:] Load current flows from anode to cathode as the p+ junction is forward biased.

6. In SITH, the magnitude of the anode current can be controlled by
a) controlling the anode-cathode voltage
b) controlling the negative gate bias
c) controlling the positive gate bias
d) it cannot be controlled

Answer: b [Reason:] Controlling the negative gate bias controls the main anode current.

7. The SITH
a) has high reverse blocking capabilities as compared to CTs
b) has low reverse blocking capabilities as compared to CTs
c) has no reverse blocking capabilities
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c [Reason:] It has no reverse blocking capabilities due to emitter-shorting.

8. The TRIAC’s terminals are
a) gate, anode, cathode
b) MT1, MT2, gate
c) gate1, gate2, anode, cathode
d) MT1, MT2, gate1, gate2

Answer: b [Reason:] TRAIC has MT1, MT2 and a gate.

9. The RCT (Reverse Conducting Thyristor) has
a) a diode in series with the SCR
b) a diode in anti-parallel with the SCR
c) two SCR’s in anti-parallel
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b [Reason:] A diode in anti-parallel with the SCR is called as a RCT.

10. The TRIAC is most sensitive in the _________ quadrants
a) 1st & 3rd with positive gate current
b) 1st with positive gate current & 3rd with negative gate current
c) 3st with positive gate current & 1rd with negative gate current
d) 1st & 3rd with negative gate current

Answer: b [Reason:] It is the most sensitive when all the voltage,current and gate signal have the same polarities.

## Set 4

1. Select the option that suits the Manifesto for Agile Software Development
a) Individuals and interactions
b) Working software
c) Customer collaboration
d) All of the mentioned

2. Agile Software Development is based on
a) Incremental Development
b) Iterative Development
c) Linear Development
d) Both Incremental and Iterative Development

Answer:d [Reason:] The software is developed in increments with the customer specifying the requirements to be included in each increment and the highest priority is to satisfy the customer through early and continuous delivery of valuable software. They are iterative because they work on one iteration followed by improvements in next iteration

3. Which on of the following is not an agile method?
a) XP
b) 4GT
c) AUP
d) All of the mentioned

Answer:b [Reason:] The 4GT approach does not incorporate iteration and the continuous feedback,which is the fundamental aspect of an agile method.

4. Agility is defined as the ability of a project team to respond rapidly to a change.
a) True
b) False

Answer:b [Reason:] The aim of agile methods is to reduce overheads in the software process and to be able to respond quickly to changing requirements without excessive rework.

5. How is plan driven development different from agile development ?
a) Outputs are decided through a process of negotiation during the software development process
b) Specification, design, implementation and testing are interleaved
c) Iteration occurs within activities
d) All of the mentioned

Answer:c [Reason:] A plan-driven approach to software engineering is based around separate development stages with the outputs to be produced at each of these stages planned in advance.

6. How many phases are there in Scrum ?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Scrum is an agile method which means it does not have phases

Answer:b [Reason:] There are three phases in Scrum.The initial phase is an outline planning phase followed by a series of sprint cycles and project closure phase.

7. Agile methods seem to work best when team members have a relatively high skill level.
a) True
b) False

8. Which of the following does not apply to agility to a software process?
a) Uses incremental product delivery strategy
b) Only essential work products are produced
c) Eliminate the use of project planning and testing
d) All of the mentioned

Answer:c [Reason:] Testing is a major part of each software development process which cant be avoided.

9. Which three framework activities are present in Adaptive Software Development(ASD) ?
a) analysis, design, coding
b) requirements gathering, adaptive cycle planning, iterative development
c) speculation, collaboration, learning
d) all of the mentioned

10. In agile development it is more important to build software that meets the customers’ needs today than worry about features that might be needed in the future.
a) True
b) False

## Set 5

1. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement “In a distributed system, several processes may operate at the same time on separate computers on the network.”?
a) Concurrency
b) Openness
c) Resource sharing
d) Fault tolerance

2. Which of the following is not a dimension of scalability?
a) Size
b) Distribution
c) Manageability
d) Interception

Answer: d [Reason:] Interception is a communication conception.

3. A distributed system must defend itself against
a) Modification
b) Interruption
c) Fabrication
d) All of the mentioned

4. QoS stands for
a) Quality of security
b) Quality of system
c) Quality of service
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: c [Reason:] QoS is particularly critical when the system is dealing with time-critical data such as sound or video streams.

5. In Java,_________ are comparable with, though not identical to, RPCs.
a) Remote Method Invocations
b) Operating System
c) Client–server computing
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a [Reason:] The RMI framework handles the invocation of remote methods in a Java program.

6. _________ depend on there being a clear separation between the presentation of information and the computations that create and process that information.
a) Master-slave architectures
b) Client–server systems
c) Two-tier client–server architecture
d) Both Master-slave architectures AND Client–server systems

Answer: b [Reason:] One should design the architecture of distributed client–server systems so that they are structured into several logical layers, with clear interfaces between these layers.

7. Which architecture is used when there is a high volume of transactions to be processed by the server?
a) Multi-tier client–server architecture
b) Master-slave architecture
c) Distributed component architecture
d) Peer-to-peer architecture

Answer: a [Reason:] Multi-tier systems may be used when applications need to access and use data from different databases.

8. Which architecture are reliant on middle-ware?
a) Multi-tier client–server architecture
b) Master-slave architecture
c) Distributed component architecture
d) Peer-to-peer architecture

Answer: c [Reason:] It allows the system designer to delay decisions on where and how services should be provided.

9. __________ is a way of providing functionality on a remote server with client access through a web browser.
a) SaaS
b) SOA
c) Configurability
d) Both SaaS and Configurability