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View All 2nd Sem MCQ Set of NMIMS
Strategic Management MCQs with Answer for NMIMS
Q1. Strategic management provides overall _________ to the enterprise.
a. direction
b. reinterpreting, shifting
c. purpose
d. None of these
a. directionAnswer
Q2. Strategic management is a question of interpreting, and continuously _________, the possibilities presented by _________ circumstances for advancing an organisation’s objectives.
a. reinterpreting, shifting
b. purpose, meeting
c. Operational, nature
d. None of these
a. reinterpreting, shiftingAnswer
Q3. The foundation of strategy is a definition of organisational _________
a. Operational nature
b. implementation
c. purpose
d. None of these
c. purposeAnswer
Q4. An individual is most often required to deal with problems of _________
a. implementation
b. Operational nature
c. vision, mission
d. None of these
b. Operational natureAnswer
Q5. Organisations set up appropriate monitoring and control systems, develop standards and targets to judge _________
a. vision, mission
b. image, competitive advantage
c. implementation
d. None of these
c. implementationAnswer
Q6. _________ and _________ of strategy rarely proceed according to plan
a. vision, mission
b. image, competitive
c. Mission, company
d. None of these
a. vision, missionAnswer
Q7. Once a firm has committed itself to a particular strategy, its _________ and _________ are tied to it.
a. Mission, company
b. vision, company
c. image, competitive advantage
d. None of these
c. image, competitive advantageAnswer
Q8. _________ basic characteristics distinguish functional strategies from corporate level and business level strategies
a. vision
b. Three
c. sequentially
d. None of these
b. ThreeAnswer
Q9. A _________ can be defined as the overall goal of an organisation that all business activities and processes should contribute toward achieving.
a. sequentially
b. Groupthink
c. vision
d. None of these
c. visionAnswer
Q10. Formulation and implementation of strategy must occur side-by-side rather than _________
a. sequentially
b. Groupthink
c. become, achieve
d. None of these
a. sequentiallyAnswer
Q11. When a strategy becomes internalised into a corporate culture, it can lead to _________
a. become, achieve
b. Single
c. Groupthink
d. None of these
c. GroupthinkAnswer
Q12. Corporate vision is a short, succinct, and inspiring statement of what the organisation intends to _________ and to _________
a. production, supply
b. become, achieve
c. Hiring, firing
d. None of these
b. become, achieveAnswer
Q13. The mission statement should have a primary focus on a _________ strategic thrust.
a. attainable
b. function
c. Single
d. None of these
c. SingleAnswer
Q14. The mission statement should reflect _________ goals.
a. attainable
b. function
c. employees
d. None of these
a. attainableAnswer
Q15. A mission can be defined as a sentence describing a company’s _________, _________ and _________
a. employees, customers
b. objectives, strategies
c. function, markets, competitive advantages
d. None of these
c. function, markets, competitive advantagesAnswer
Q16. It is more important to communicate the mission statement to _________ than to _________
a. objectives, strategies
b. employees, customers
c. intended, people
d. None of these
b. employees, customersAnswer
Q17. Strategy formulation includes defining the _________, specifying achievable _________, developing _________ and setting policy guidelines
a. objectives, strategies, intended
b. organization, objectives, strategies
c. corporate mission, objectives, strategies
d. None of these
c. corporate mission, objectives, strategiesAnswer
Q18. Strategy is a plan – some sort of consciously _________course of action, a guideline to deal with a situation.
a. intended
b. organization
c. Planning
d. None of these
a. intendedAnswer
Q19. Strategy is a position – specifically a means of locating an _________ in an “environment”.
a. Planning
b. programmes
c. organization
d. None of these
c. organizationAnswer
Q20. According to Mintzberg strategic _________ is not strategic thinking.
a. programmes
b. Planning
c. Core capability
d. None of these
b. PlanningAnswer
Q21. Ansoff identified four standard types of organisational decisions as related to strategy, policy, _________, and standard operating procedures.
a. Core capability
b. growth strategy
c. programmes
d. None of these
c. programmesAnswer
Q22. Ansoff argued that within a company’s activities there should be an element of _________ .
a. Core capability
b. growth strategy
c. new markets
d. None of these
a. Core capabilityAnswer
Q23. Market penetration is the name given to a _________ where the business focuses on selling existing products into existing markets.
a. new markets
b. low cost producer
c. growth strategy
d. None of these
c. growth strategyAnswer
Q24. Market development is the name given to a growth strategy where the business seeks to sell its existing products into __________________
a. low cost producer
b. new markets
c. cost advantage
d. None of these
b. new marketsAnswer
Q25. Cost leadership strategy calls for being the _________ in an industry for a given level of quality.
a. cost advantage
b. rearranging
c. low cost producer
d. None of these
c. low cost producerAnswer
Q26. The focus strategy concentrates on a narrow segment and within that segment attempts to achieve either a _________ or differentiation
a. cost advantage
b. rearranging
c. centralized
d. None of these
a. cost advantageAnswer
Q27. Real strategic change requires not merely _________ the established categories, but inventing new ones.
a. centralized
b. Globalisation
c. rearranging
d. None of these
c. rearrangingAnswer
Q28. Upstream activities are generally _________
a. Globalisation
b. centralized
c. Homogeneity
d. None of these
b. centralizedAnswer
Q29. _________ helps in increasing the customer base of the firm.
a. Homogeneity
b. International Company
c. Globalisation
d. None of these
c. GlobalisationAnswer
Q30. _________ of demand means that irrespective of where customers are physically located, they are likely to prefer the same kind of product or service world-wide.
a. Homogeneity
b. International Company
c. Global company
d. None of these
a. HomogeneityAnswer
Q31. When the focus of a business is its domestic operations, but a portion of its activities are outside the home country, it is called an _________
a. Global company
b. Franchising
c. International Company
d. None of these
c. International CompanyAnswer
Q32. When the company treats the whole world as one market and one source of supply, it is called a _________
a. Franchising
b. Global company
c. sales subsidiary
d. None of these
b. Global companyAnswer
Q33. _________ is a form of licensing in which the firm provides the foreign franchisee with complete package.
a. sales subsidiary
b. wholly-owned
c. Franchising
d. None of these
c. FranchisingAnswer
Q34. In the case of a _________, the firm remains close to customers.
a. sales subsidiary
b. wholly-owned
c. offshoring
d. None of these
a. sales subsidiaryAnswer
Q35. When a firm establishes a _________ subsidiary in the host country, this subsidiary looks after all production, sales and service activities needed to operate in that country.
a. offshoring
b. strategic alliance
c. wholly-owned
d. None of these
c. wholly-ownedAnswer
Q36. Firms such as Infosys, TCS and Wipro have been growing rapidly because of _________ of software jobs.
a. strategic alliance
b. offshoring
c. Knowledge transfer
d. None of these
b. offshoringAnswer
Q37. A _________ is generally formed to access a critical capability not possessed in-house.
a. Knowledge transfer
b. joint venture
c. strategic alliance
d. None of these
c. strategic allianceAnswer
Q38. _________ from one subsidiary to another may not take place “automatically”.
a. Knowledge transfer
b. joint venture
c. Capital
d. None of these
a. Knowledge transferAnswer
Q39. In a _________, two firms contribute equity to form a new venture, typically in the host country.
a. joint venture
b. Capital
c. Demand
d. None of these
a. joint ventureAnswer
Q40. Firms need not incur _________ costs in setting up a unit.
a. Capital
b. Demand
c. low-cost labour, natural resources
d. None of these
a. CapitalAnswer
Q41. Global markets offer exciting opportunities to exploit the latest _________ in world markets.
a. Demand
b. low-cost labour, natural resources
c. exchange rate
d. None of these
a. DemandAnswer
Q42. The most important reasons for international expansion are _________ and availability of _________ in various parts of the world.
a. low-cost labour, natural resources
b. exchange, rate
c. ambiguous, labour
d. None of these
a. low-cost labour, natural resourcesAnswer
Q43. A company with operations in several countries must constantly monitor the _________ between its own currency and that of the host country.
a. exchange rate
b. ambiguous
c. environmental opportunities, organisational strengths
d. None of these
a. exchange rateAnswer
Q44. A diversity of accounting standards renders financial figures _________
a. ambiguous
b. environmental opportunities, organisational strengths
c. SWOT
d. None of these
a. ambiguousAnswer
Q45. Strategic management is ultimately a “matching game” between _________ and _________
a. SWOT, organisational
b. insufficient, opportunities
c. environmental opportunities, organisational strengths
d. None of these
c. environmental opportunities, organisational strengthsAnswer
Q46. _________ stands for strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats.
a. insufficient
b. SWOT
c. compare
d. None of these
b. SWOTAnswer
Q47. Casual knowledge about competitors usually is _________ in competitor analysis.
a. compare
b. competitive
c. insufficient
d. None of these
c. insufficientAnswer
Q48. The purpose of the competitive framework is to present the data in a way that makes it easy to _________ the various sites across the different criteria.
a. compare
b. competitive
c. important
d. None of these
a. compareAnswer
Q49. Knowledge of a competitor’s objectives facilitates a better prediction of the competitor’s reaction to different _________ moves.
a. important
b. define
c. competitive
d. None of these
c. competitiveAnswer
Q50. The competitor’s organisational structure provides clues as to which functions of the company are deemed to be the more _________
a. define
b. important
c. competitive
d. None of these
b. importantAnswer
Q51. The assumptions that a competitor’s managers hold about their firm and their industry help to _________ the moves that they will consider.
a. competitive
b. Environment
c. define
d. None of these
c. defineAnswer
Q52. Knowledge of the competitor’s assumptions, objectives, and current strategy is useful in understanding how the competitor might want to respond to a _________ attack
a. competitive
b. Environment
c. Intense
d. None of these
a. competitiveAnswer
Q53. Porter’s intensity of rivalry in an industry affects the competitive _________ and influences the ability of existing firms to achieve profitability.
a. Intense
b. slow-cycle
c. Environment
d. None of these
c. EnvironmentAnswer
Q54. If the industry consists of numerous competitors, Porter rivalry will be more _________
a. slow-cycle
b. Intense
c. imitation
d. None of these
b. IntenseAnswer
Q55. Competitive advantages are sustainable in _________ markets.
a. imitation
b. Competitive rivalry, competitive dynamics
c. slow-cycle
d. None of these
c. slow-cycleAnswer
Q56. Fast-cycle markets are markets in which the firm’s capabilities that contribute to competitive advantages aren’t shielded from _________ and where imitation is often rapid and inexpensive
a. imitation
b. Competitive rivalry, competitive dynamics
c. Likelihood of Attack, Likelihood of Response
d. None of these
a. imitationAnswer
Q57. _________ or _________ begin with an assessment of competitors’ awareness and motivation to attack and/or respond to competitive moves.
a. Competitive rivalry, competitive dynamics
b. Likelihood of Attack, Likelihood of Response
c. tactical, actions
d. None of these
a. Competitive rivalry, competitive dynamicsAnswer
Q58. The value of the final set of predictions the firm develops about each of its competitor’s competitive actions and competitive responses is enhanced by studying the _________ factors and the _________ factors.
a. tactical, actions
b. competitive action, reputation
c. Likelihood of Attack, Likelihood of Response
d. None of these
c. Likelihood of Attack, Likelihood of ResponseAnswer
Q59. Competitive responses to strategic actions differ from responses to _________
a. competitive action, reputation, market dependence
b. tactical actions
c. antagonists
d. None of these
b. tactical actionsAnswer
Q60. Three factors can help a firm predict how a competitor is likely to respond to competitive actions: the type of _________, _________ and _________
a. antagonists, reputation, market
b. competitive action, reputation, market dependence
c. Competition, action, reputation
d. None of these
b. competitive action, reputation, market dependenceAnswer
Q61. The collective strength of the forces may be painfully apparent to all the _________
a. Competition
b. Strategists
c. antagonists
d. None of these
c. antagonistsAnswer
Q62. The job of the strategist is to understand and cope with_________
a. Strategists
b. Competition
c. investment
d. None of these
b. CompetitionAnswer
Q63. A healthy industry structure should be as much a competitive concern to _________ as their company’s own position.
a. investment
b. incumbents
c. Strategists
d. None of these
c. StrategistsAnswer
Q64. New entrants to an industry bring new capacity and a desire to gain market share that puts pressure on prices, costs, and the rate of _________ necessary to compete.
a. incumbents
b. investment
c. cost of capital
d. None of these
b. investmentAnswer
Q65. The threat of entry in an industry depends on the height of entry barriers that are present and on the reaction entrants can expect from __________________
a. cost of capital
b. bonanza
c. incumbents
d. None of these
c. incumbentsAnswer
Q66. If reaction is vigorous and protracted enough, the profit potential of participating in the industry can fall below the _________
a. cost of capital
b. bonanza
c. profitability
d. None of these
a. cost of capitalAnswer
Q67. Substitutes not only limit profits in normal times, they also reduce the _________ an industry can reap in good times.
a. profitability
b. intensity
c. bonanza
d. None of these
c. bonanzaAnswer
Q68. High rivalry limits the _________ of an industry.
a. intensity
b. profitability
c. drivers
d. None of these
b. profitabilityAnswer
Q69. The strength of rivalry reflects not just the _________ of competition but also the basis of competition.
a. intensity
b. drivers
c. PEST, PESTLE
d. None of these
a. intensityAnswer
Q70. The competitive forces reveal the _________ of industry competition.
a. PEST, PESTLE
b. external
c. drivers
d. None of these
c. driversAnswer
Q71. Originally designed as a business environmental scan, the _________ or _________ analysis is an analysis of the external macro environment (big picture) in which a business operates.
a. PEST, PESTLE
b. State, Economic
c. Political, Economic
d. None of these
a. PEST, PESTLEAnswer
Q72. A PESTLE analysis is a business measurement tool, looking at factors _________ to the organisation.
a. Political
b. Capital
c. external
d. None of these
c. externalAnswer
Q73. PESTLE is an acronym for _________, _________, _________, _________, _________ and _________ factors.
a. Economic, National, Tech, Legal, Environment and Intnational
b. Economic, International, Technological, Legal, Environment and National
c. Political, Economic, Social, Technological, Legal, Environment
d. None of these
c. Political, Economic, Social, Technological, Legal, EnvironmentAnswer
Q74. _________ measures the importance of capital as opposed to labour in the production process.
a. Capital intensity
b. Investors
c. advertising
d. None of these
a. Capital intensityAnswer
Q75. _________ demand a premium for bearing the risk that comes from the gap of information between investors and entrepreneurs.
a. advertising
b. Consolidation
c. Investors
d. None of these
c. InvestorsAnswer
Q76. The cost of _________ is largely fixed, regardless of the number of units of a product sold.
a. advertising
b. Consolidation
c. Technology Lifecycle (TLC)
d. None of these
a. advertisingAnswer
Q77. _________ has long been used to achieve and sustain power in the marketplace.
a. Technology Lifecycle (TLC)
b. Consolidation
c. core competence
d. None of these
b. ConsolidationAnswer
Q78. _________ describes the commercial gain of a product through the expense of research and development phase, and the financial return during its “vital life”.
a. core competence
b. customers
c. Technology Lifecycle (TLC)
d. None of these
c. Technology Lifecycle (TLC)Answer
Q79. An organisation’s __________________ is something it does exceptionally well in comparison to its competitors.
a. customers
b. core competence
c. competitiveness
d. None of these
b. core competenceAnswer
Q80. Exploiting core competencies and achieving synergy help organisations create value for their _________
a. competitiveness
b. Information
c. customers
d. None of these
c. customersAnswer
Q81. Strategic _________ is achieved when a firm successfully formulates and implements a value creating strategy.
a. Information
b. competitiveness
c. Implementation
d. None of these
b. competitivenessAnswer
Q82. The information process involves collecting and analysing _________ about the external and internal environments.
a. Implementation
b. Formulating
c. Information
d. None of these
c. InformationAnswer
Q83. The decision process covers four important steps: development of alternatives, choice, _________ and assessment.
a. Formulating
b. Implementation
c. Evaluation
d. None of these
b. ImplementationAnswer
Q84. Strategic management aims at _________ and implementing effective strategies.
a. Evaluation
b. resources, capabilities
c. Formulating
d. None of these
c. FormulatingAnswer
Q85. The strategic management process begins with an _________ of the organisation’s current vision, mission, objectives and strategy.
a. resources, capabilities
b. Evaluation
c. mission statement
d. None of these
b. EvaluationAnswer
Q86. In order to exploit environmental opportunities to its advantage, a firm must have internal _________ and _________
a. mission, statement
b. Developing, skills
c. resources, capabilities
d. None of these
c. resources, capabilitiesAnswer
Q87. The situation analysis provides the information necessary to create a company _________ .
a. Developing
b. mission statement
c. Functional strategies
d. None of these
b. mission statementAnswer
Q88. Strategy formulation involves designing and _________ the company strategies.
a. Developing
b. Functional strategies
c. Operations
d. None of these
a. DevelopingAnswer
Q89. _________ are formulated by specialists in each area of a business such as marketing, production, finance, human resources and research and development.
a. Operations
b. Marketing
c. Functional strategies
d. None of these
c. Functional strategiesAnswer
Q90. _________ strategy outlines steps to keep costs under check and improve operational efficiency.
a. Operations
b. Marketing
c. culture, motivational
d. None of these
a. OperationsAnswer
Q91. _________ strategy deals with product, pricing, distribution and promotion of a company’s offerings. Important issues here cover what type of products, at what prices, through which distribution channel and by the use of which promotional tool and sales force etc.
a. culture, motivational
b. businesses
c. Marketing
d. None of these
c. MarketingAnswer
Q92. Whereas a company’s …… affects strategy implementation over the long haul, the short-term …….. environment affects strategy implementation today.
a. culture, motivational
b. businesses, commission
c. perspectives, making
d. None of these
a. culture, motivationalAnswer
Q93. Corporate strategy is basically concerned with the choice of _________, products and markets.
a. perspectives
b. competitive advantage
c. businesses
d. None of these
c. businessesAnswer
Q94. The score-card allows managers to evaluate a firm from different complementary _________
a. competitive advantage
b. perspectives
c. long-term
d. None of these
b. perspectivesAnswer
Q95. Corporate success, depends on how well a firm is able to extend its _________ to new areas over a long period of time.
a. long-term
b. corporate level strategy
c. competitive advantage
d. None of these
c. competitive advantageAnswer
Q96. Grand strategy is the general plan of major action by which a firm intends to achieve its _________ goals.
a. long-term
b. corporate level strategy
c. Growth Strategies
d. None of these
a. long-termAnswer
Q97. When an organisation achieves stability after a time, it can pursue growth strategies in the same field or in _________ depending on its strengths.
a. Growth Strategies
b. confining
c. corporate level strategy
d. None of these
c. corporate level strategyAnswer
Q98. _________ are extremely popular because most managers tend to equate growth with success.
a. confining
b. Growth Strategies
c. Acquiring
d. None of these
b. Growth StrategiesAnswer
Q99. Diversification is said to minimise risks associated with _________ the business to one or very few products.
a. Acquiring
b. diversifies
c. confining
d. None of these
c. confiningAnswer
Q100. Horizontal integration takes place when some firms expand by _________ other companies in the same line of business.
a. Acquiring
b. diversifies
c. Outweigh
d. None of these
a. AcquiringAnswer
Q101. Conglomerate diversification takes place when an organisation _________ into areas that are unrelated to its current business.
a. Outweigh
b. volatile
c. diversifies
d. None of these
c. diversifiesAnswer
Q102. Diversification is fruitful only when the benefits generated by diversification _________ the related costs.
a. volatile
b. Outweigh
c. Profitability
d. None of these
b. OutweighAnswer
Q103. Stability strategies works only when the firm is doing well and the environment is not excessively _________
a. Profitability
b. Consortia
c. volatile
d. None of these
c. volatileAnswer
Q104. A turnaround is designed to reverse a negative trend and bring the organisation back to normal health and _________
a. Profitability
b. Consortia
c. Joint Venture
d. None of these
a. ProfitabilityAnswer
Q105. _________ are interlocking relationships between businesses of an industry.
a. Joint Venture
b. Consortia
c. Divestiture
d. None of these
b. ConsortiaAnswer
Q106. In a _________, the companies involved take an equity stake in one another.
a. Divestiture
b. ESOP
c. Joint Venture
d. None of these
c. Joint VentureAnswer
Q107. _________ is a form of contraction for the selling company means of expansion for the purchasing company.
a. Divestiture
b. ESOP
c. Rivalry
d. None of these
a. DivestitureAnswer
Q108. _________ is a qualified, defined contribution, employee benefit plan designed to invest primarily in the stock of the sponsoring employer.
a. ESOP
b. Rivalry
c. Production
d. None of these
a. ESOPAnswer
Q109. Buyers, product substitutes, suppliers and potential new companies within the industry all contribute to the level of _________ among industry firms.
a. Production
b. Benchmarking
c. Rivalry
d. None of these
c. RivalryAnswer
Q110. Competitive advantage factors include marketing, finance, research and development, personnel and _________
a. Production
b. Benchmarking
c. Competitive Advantage
d. None of these
a. ProductionAnswer
Q111. _________ is a way of comparing your own products and processes against the very best (rivals) in the world.
a. Competitive Advantage
b. Product Innovations
c. Benchmarking
d. None of these
c. BenchmarkingAnswer
Q112. Value chain approach helps in identifying and building _________
a. Product Innovations
b. Competitive Advantage
c. Lower cost
d. None of these
b. Competitive AdvantageAnswer
Q113. Firms can acquire core competence through heavy investments in technology, research and development followed by new _________
a. Lower cost
b. Sustainability
c. Product Innovations
d. None of these
c. Product InnovationsAnswer
Q114. Low cost leadership strategies are based on a firm’s ability to offer a product or service at a _________ than its rivals.
a. Lower cost
b. Sustainability
c. Customers
d. None of these
a. Lower costAnswer
Q115. The attraction of differentiation over low cost as a basis for competitive advantage is its potential for _________
a. Customers
b. Differentiation
c. Sustainability
d. None of these
c. SustainabilityAnswer
Q116. Differentiation builds competitive advantage by making _________ more loyal, less price sensitive and less willing to consider other product alternatives.
a. Differentiation
b. Customers
c. Focus
d. None of these
b. CustomersAnswer
Q117. _________ builds competitive advantage by making customers more loyal, less price sensitive and less willing to consider other product alternatives.
a. Focus
b. Market Niche
c. Differentiation
d. None of these
c. DifferentiationAnswer
Q118. _________ means concentrating on a particular group of customers, a specific geographic area, or a certain part of the product or service line.
a. Focus
b. Market Niche
c. Specialization
d. None of these
a. FocusAnswer
Q119. The biggest benefit of a focus strategy is that the firm is able to find a _________ against a larger, broader-line competitor.
a. Specialization
b. Generic
c. Market Niche
d. None of these
c. Market NicheAnswer
Q120. Through _________ and high concentration of its resources in a given area, the firm is able to serve the requirements of a niche segment better than others.
a. Generic
b. Specialization
c. stable
d. None of these
b. SpecializationAnswer
Q121. Exclusive reliance on any single _________ strategy does not endow the firm with a sustained capability to innovate new sources of value more quickly.
a. stable
b. Technological
c. Generic
d. None of these
c. GenericAnswer
Q122. When the external environment is in a state of flux, the firm itself, in terms of its bundle of resources and capabilities, may be a much more _________ basis on which to define its identity.
a. stable
b. Technological
c. resource
d. None of these
a. stableAnswer
Q123. In fast-moving, technology-based industries, new companies are built around specific _________ capabilities
a. resource
b. Technological
c. strategy formulation
d. None of these
b. TechnologicalAnswer
Q124. Distinguishing between profit arising from market power and profit arising from _________ is less clear in practice than in principle.
a. strategy formulation
b. intangible
c. resource
d. None of these
c. resourceAnswer
Q125. The resource-based approach has profound implications for companies’ _________
a. strategy formulation
b. intangible
c. employees
d. None of these
a. strategy formulationAnswer
Q126. Like reputation, technology is an _________ asset whose value is not evident from most companies’ balance sheets.
a. intangible
b. employees
c. Routinisation
d. None of these
a. intangibleAnswer
Q127. The human resources of the firm are the expertise and effort offered by its _________
a. Routinisation
b. Capital
c. employees
d. None of these
c. employeesAnswer
Q128. _________ is an essential step in translating directions and operating practices into capabilities.
a. Routinisation
b. Capital
c. Resources
d. None of these
a. RoutinisationAnswer
Q129. Organisational capability requires the expertise of various individuals to be integrated with _________ equipment, technology, and other resources.
a. Resources
b. replicates
c. Capital
d. None of these
c. CapitalAnswer
Q130. Possibly the most difficult problem in developing capabilities is that we know little about the linkage between _________and capabilities.
a. Resources
b. replicates
c. right things
d. None of these
a. ResourcesAnswer
Q131. Growing capabilities requires that the firm _________ them internally.
a. right things
b. functional structure
c. replicates
d. None of these
c. replicatesAnswer
Q132. Functional strategies are concerned with dealing the _________
a. functional structure
b. right things
c. expectations, demands
d. None of these
b. right thingsAnswer
Q133. To plan and implement a functional strategy it is pertinent to have a proper review of the _________ of an organisation.
a. expectations, demands
b. informed
c. functional structure
d. None of these
c. functional structureAnswer
Q134. Good functional strategy describes how an organisation plans to use employee, technological and business processes to meet customer _________ and shareholder _________
a. informed, pattern
b. expectations, demands
c. execution, performance
d. None of these
b. expectations, demandsAnswer
Q135. If workers are not kept _________, they will make up their own messages and stories in an attempt to fill in the blanks.
a. execution performance
b. Lightly
c. informed
d. None of these
c. informedAnswer
Q136. Leaders must put in place systems for how managers will be evaluated and held accountable for their _________
a. execution performance
b. Lightly
c. controls
d. None of these
a. execution performanceAnswer
Q137. Strategy execution is a complex process that cannot be taken _________
a. controls
b. effectiveness
c. Lightly
d. None of these
c. LightlyAnswer
Q138. Information and _________ are an integral part of any organisation’s functional level strategies.
a. effectiveness
b. controls
c. manage risks
d. None of these
b. controlsAnswer
Q139. Internal control systems operate at different levels of _________
a. manage risks
b. functional activities
c. effectiveness
d. None of these
c. effectivenessAnswer
Q140. Objectives must be established before Managers can identify and take necessary steps to _________
a. manage risks
b. functional activities
c. strategies
d. None of these
a. manage risksAnswer
Q141. At the functional level, human resource management includes translating corporate and business unit strategies into specific _________
a. strategies
b. action
c. functional activities
d. None of these
c. functional activitiesAnswer
Q142. Companies require _________ to guide how to achieve objectives and how to pursue the company’s mission.
a. strategies
b. action
c. profitability
d. None of these
a. strategiesAnswer
Q143. Strategy is inherently _________ oriented; it concerns what to do, when to do it and who should be involved.
a. profitability
b. inaction
c. action
d. None of these
c. actionAnswer
Q144. For most of the organisations, _________ is the main goal.
a. inaction
b. profitability
c. implement
d. None of these
b. profitabilityAnswer
Q145. Management can cause a gap between strategy and execution through both action and _________
a. implement
b. processes
c. inaction
d. None of these
c. inactionAnswer
Q146. Operational managers and their employees are the people within an organisation who _________ strategy.
a. implement
b. processes
c. strategic gap
d. None of these
a. implementAnswer
Q147. Communication of strategy is vital in all management _________
a. strategic gap
b. strategic plan
c. processes
d. None of these
c. processesAnswer
Q148. Failure to effectively communicate strategy and how well or poorly it is being implemented will result in the _________
a. strategic plan
b. strategic gap
c. financial
d. None of these
b. strategic gapAnswer
Q149. Budgeting is an annual process that follows the _________, and it is a process that just takes too long.
a. financial
b. inflexible
c. strategic plan
d. None of these
c. strategic planAnswer
Q150. An organisation’s _________ results are the outcome of its strategy implementation or lack of strategy implementation.
a. financial
b. inflexible
c. detailed
d. None of these
a. financialAnswer
Q151. The traditional systems that support planning, budgeting, forecasting, and reporting are _________
a. inflexible
b. detailed
c. creative
d. None of these
a. inflexibleAnswer
Q152. Cost Leadership requires a very _________ internal focus on processes.
a. creative
b. strategic
c. detailed
d. None of these
c. detailedAnswer
Q153. Differentiation, on the other hand, demands an outward-facing, highly _________ approach.
a. strategic
b. creative
c. Employees
d. None of these
b. creativeAnswer
Q154. Porter’s Generic Strategies offer a great starting point for _________ decision making.
a. Employees
b. alignment
c. strategic
d. None of these
c. strategicAnswer
Q155. Successful strategy implementation requires support, discipline, motivation and hard work from all managers and _________
a. Employees
b. alignment
c. organization
d. None of these
a. EmployeesAnswer
Q156. The successful implementation of a strategy depends on the right _________ of all the seven-Ss.
a. alignment
b. organization
c. allocated
d. None of these
a. alignmentAnswer
Q157. The successful implementation of strategy requires an effective _________
a. allocated
b. maximize
c. organization
d. None of these
c. organizationAnswer
Q158. While implementing strategies, the scarce resources of a firm need to be _________ carefully, according to a plan.
a. maximize
b. allocated
c. implement
d. None of these
b. allocatedAnswer
Q159. The primary purpose of a capital budget is to _________ the long term profitability of a firm while deploying resources.
a. implement
b. structure
c. maximize
d. None of these
c. maximizeAnswer
Q160. A suitable organisation structure is essential to _________ strategies and achieve stated goals.
a. implement
b. structure
c. single site
d. None of these
a. implementAnswer
