SQL MCQ Set 1
1. SNR represents __________
a) Sign to noise ratio
b) Sample to nonconforming ratio
c) Size to noise ratio
d) Signal to noise ratio
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] A measure of measurement system adequacy is defined by AIAG, which is called SNR or signal to noise ratio. It is used to check the satisfactoriness of the measurement system.
2. SNR is equal to _________
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] SNR is the measure of measurement system adequacy. It uses the gauge capability ratio ρp. It is expressed as,
3. What is the correct definition of SNR?
a) The number of signals for 30 noise indications on control chart
b) The number of signals for single noise indication on control chart
c) The number of signals with no noise from the measurements
d) The number of distinct levels or categories that can be reliably obtained from the measurements
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] SNR is defined by AIAG as the number of distinct levels or categories that can be reliably obtained from the measurement.
4. If the estimate of pp is 0.9214, what will be the estimate of SNR?
a) 4.84
b) 6.87
c) 9.12
d) 2.13
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] We know that,
By putting the value of the estimate of ρp we get SNR estimate = 4.84.
5. Which of these is not one of the gauge capability ratios?
a) SNR
b) Cp
c) ρM
d) ρp
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] SNR, ρp and ρM are some examples of the gauge capability ratios, which are used to check the adequacy of the measurement system used.
6. What is the full-form of DR in the context of gauge capability?
a) Decrease rate
b) Direction ratios
c) Discrimination ratios
d) Dimension rates
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] Like the other gauge capability ratios like SNR, ρp, and ρM; DR is also a measure of gauge capability. Its full-form is known as discrimination ratio.
7. What is the value of DR?
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] The value of the discrimination ratio, which is used as a measure of adequacy of a measurement system, and which uses the ratio ρp, is used to evaluate the gauge capability. It is expressed as,
8. For a measurement system ρp=0.8914. What will be the value of DR for that?
a) 17.416
b) 0.0571
c) 24.46
d) 0.0652
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] We know that,
Putting the values, we get DR=17.416.
9. For a gauge to be capable, generally DR must be greater than ___
a) 1
b) 0.4
c) 0.1
d) 4
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] It is generally stated that the DR for a capable gauge is, generally having a value higher than 4. This means for a gauge to be capable, the DR must exceed 4.
10. Which of these tells about the inherent variability of the gauge?
a) Accuracy
b) Precision
c) DR ratio
d) SNR
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] Precision of a measurement system can be a measure of the inherent variability of the gauge. This is because the inherent variability moves the output of a gauge strongly to one direction or to a point.
11. 
The picture indicates gauge measurements where the dark circle is true value and the dots as observed value. This picture shows _____
a) More accuracy, less precision
b) Neither accuracy nor precision
c) More precision, less accuracy
d) High accuracy and precision
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] The average of the observed values is almost equal to the true value. So from the definition of accuracy, we can say this gauge is more accurate than precise.
12. The standard model for a gauge R & R study is also called ____
a) Random effects model analysis of variance
b) Continuous effects model analysis of variance
c) Discrete effects model analysis of variance
d) Attribute effects model analysis of variance
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] The standard model for a gauge R & R study is also called a random effects model analysis of variance. It is generally used while calculating the gauge capability.
13. The more the gauge capability, the more are the ___
a) Tolerances
b) Specifications
c) Chances of rejection
d) Chances of no error in measurements
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] The gauge capability represents the ability of gauge to measure the dimension or unit correctly. The more is the gauge capability, the more are the chances of no error in measurements.
14. Even if the instantaneous value measured for a dimension by a gauge is not equal to the true value, but the gauge can still be accurate.
a) True
b) False
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] The accuracy of a gauge refers to the ability of the instrument to measure the true value correctly, on average. So even if the instantaneous value by a gauge is not equal to the true value, but average of it is almost equal to the true value, the gauge is accurate.
15. An equipment can be more precise but not accurate at the same time.
a) True
b) False
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] Accuracy refers to the ability of the instrument to measure the true value correctly on average, but precision is measure of inherent variability in the measurement system, so both can be present, even in the absence of either one of them.
SQL MCQ Set 2
1. What is reproducibility?
a) Variability due to different operators using the gauge or different time periods, or environments
b) Variability due to error in process
c) Variability reflecting the basic inherent precision of the gauge itself
d) Variability reflecting the basic inherent precision of the process
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] Reproducibility is defined as the variability due to different operators using the gauge, or different time periods, or different environments, or in general, different conditions.
2. What is repeatability?
a) Variability due to different operators using the gauge or different time periods, or environments
b) Variability due to error in process
c) Variability reflecting the basic inherent precision of the gauge itself
d) Variability reflecting the basic inherent precision of the process
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] Repeatability is defined as reflecting the basic inherent precision of the gauge itself, through which we are measuring the unit.
3. What can we write the variance in measurement error or gauge in the terms of variance in repeatability, and variance of reproducibility?
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] We can write the measurement error or gauge error variance as follows,
.
4. Which of these is called an R & R study?
a) Experiment used to measure components of σ2gauge
b) Experiment used to measure components of σ2Total
c) Experiment used to measure components of σ2P
d) Experiment used to measure components of σ2Repeatibility
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] The experiment used to measure the components of σ2gauge is usually called a gauge R & R study, for two components of σ2gauge.
5. What is the other name of random effects model analysis of variance?
a) ANOVA
b) RENOVA
c) FNOVA
d) MENOVA
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] The random effects model analysis of variance is also called the ANOVA model analysis. This is a part of analysis of variance method.
6. If the value of the variance of the product variability increases, what will be the effect on the variance of the gauge?
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) No change
d) Can’t be predicted (no dependency over each other)
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] As there is no dependency of the variance of the gauge on the product variability, even if the product variability increases, we cannot predict the changes in gauge variability variance.
7. If the variance of the total observed measurement is constant and the gauge capability ratio ρ_M is increased, what will be change in the gauge measurement variance?
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) No change
d) Can’t be predicted (no dependency over each other)
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] As we know,
So if the variance of the total observed measurement is kept constant with the gauge capability ratio ρM increasing, the variance of gauge measurement will be increased.
8. If the variance of product variability is increased while keeping the total observed measurement variance constant, what will be effect on the gauge capability ratio ρP?
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) No change
d) Can’t be predicted (no dependency over each other)
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] As we know,
ρP∝ σp2
So, the gauge capability ratio ρP will increase with increase with increase in the variance in product variability σp2.
9. If the value of product variance is increased with the variance of the total observed measurement kept constant, the value of the gauge capability ratio ρM increases.
a) True
b) False
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] As we know,
Putting the equations together, we get to know that the value of ρM increases with decrease in the product variance.
10. A DR of value 5.89 indicates an adequate measurement system.
a) True
b) False
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] It is known that an Discrimination ratio of value more than 4 indicates an adequate measurement system. So a DR of value 5.89 indicates an adequate measurement system.
SQL MCQ Set 3
1. In the low level of maturity of any organization, the technique of quality improvement that is used the most is _________
a) acceptance sampling
b) statistical process control
c) design of experiments
d) regression analysis
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] In early stage of any organization, the quality knowledge to management is negligible. So acceptance sampling is chosen to get the highest level of it.
2. In the Factorial design type of design of experiments, which of these points are used?
a) Controlling noise factors
b) Outgoing inspection
c) Incoming inspection
d) Testing outputs of all possible combination of factor levels
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] We cannot control noise factors. In factorial design, factors are varied together, in such a way that all possible combination of factor levels is tested.
3. Factorial design is a _______
a) off-line quality control tool
b) on-Line quality control tool
c) in-process procedure
d) redundancy plan
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] Off-line quality control means, quality control before process starts. Factorial design is implemented before process starting, so it is an off-line quality control tool.
4. Control chart is a useful ______
a) manufacturing process
b) process monitoring technique
c) off-line quality control tool
d) part of acceptance sampling techniques
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] Control chart is a very useful part of process monitoring tool, as it can only give information if the process is going out of control.
5. Which of these is not a part of feedback control?
a) Engineering control
b) Automatic control
c) Acceptance sampling
d) Routine adjustment
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] The process variables are adjusted as needed, to get the output process characteristics on target value. This routine adjustment is called Engineering control or feedback control.
6. The highest reduction in the variability from one unit of product to other can be obtained by ______
a) statistical process control
b) acceptance Sampling
c) design of Experiments
d) design of Experiments with automatic control
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] Design of experiments gives the highest reduction in variability. When it is combined with automatic components, the variability reduces even more.
7. Quality assurance is related to _____
a) strategic activities to ensure the financial plans
b) set of activities that ensures that the services and product meet the requirements
c) set of activities that ensures that the supplier-customer quality issues are properly resolved
d) set of activities that include inspection and planning
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] Quality assurance is the set of activities, that ensure the quality levels of products and services are properly maintained, and the supplier-customer relations are good.
8. “We can rely on mass inspection to control quality.”
a) True
b) False
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] Inspection identifies defects at the instant when the producer has already paid to make them. So we cannot rely on mass inspection as it costs much.
9. Which of the following is not based on Deming’s points?
a) Focus on continuous improvement
b) An ongoing program of education of employees is necessary.
c) Reach the slogans and numerical goals for the workplace
d) Elimination of numerical quotas and work standards
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] According to Deming, a goal of zero defects is useless, without any plan for the achievement of the goal like this. These slogans are usually counterproductive.
10. How many points did Deming give to elaborate methods for quality improvement?
a) 10
b) 12
c) 23
d) 14
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] W. Edwards Deming has summarized his philosophy of quality improvement, in the set of several points for management to work on. There are total 14 points in it.
11. Which of these is not the part of Deming’s 7 diseases of Management?
a) Lack of constancy of purpose
b) Emphasis on short-term profits
c) Emphasis on Long term profits
d) Mobility of top management
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] Long term profits give higher chances of survival of business. So it is not among the 7 diseases of management.
12. Mobility of top management is described as _______
a) constant improvement of processes
b) management by visible figures alone
c) performance reviews on the basis of short-term performance
d) manager not taking important decisions about business
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] Mobility of top management is described as widespread practice of job-hopping; that is manager spending lesser time for the current job, and more time on the next career move of his/her.
13. Lack of constancy of purpose means ________
a) low short term profits
b) low long term profits
c) inferior strategically planning about the continuous improvement
d) lack of investment planning
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] Continuous improvement of products, processes, and services to assure quality improvement, is the purpose of any organization. Lack of it, is called lack of constancy of purpose.
14. PDCA cycle is also termed as PDSA cycle.
a) True
b) False
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] Shewhart cycle is generally described as PDCA cycle where PDCA stands for Plan-Do-Check-Act. Sometimes, in PDCA cycle, check step is called Study step.
SQL MCQ Set 4
1. Moving the UCL and LCL line far from the Center line means ____
a) Decreasing the possibility of type I error
b) Increasing the possibility of type II error
c) Increasing the possibility of type I error
d) Decreasing the possibility of type II error
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] Type I error is, “concluding the process to be out-of-control when it is actually in-control”. So, more distance between UCL and LCL means, a point without an assignable cause will lie in between the UCL and LCL, i.e. in-control.
2. If we decrease the distance between LCL and UCL, what will happen?
a) Decreasing the possibility of type I error
b) Increasing the possibility of type II error
c) Increasing the possibility of type I error
d) Decreasing the possibility of type II error
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] Type II error is, “concluding the process to be in-control when it is actually out-of-control”. This means the decreased distance between LCL and UCL will cause a point with assignable cause, lie not in between them, i.e. out-of-control.
3. If “two sets of limits” approach is taken to construct a control chart, what are the outer set of limits called?
a) Action Limits
b) Warning Limits
c) Variable Limits
d) Constant Limits
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] The outer set of limits used in a “two sets of limits” approach of constructing a control chart, are generally called Action limits as action is to be done to correct the assignable cause if any point out-lies the action limits.
4. The inner limits in the “Two sets of limits” approach of the construction of control chart are called _____
a) Action Limits
b) Variable Limits
c) Constant Limits
d) Warning Limits
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] The “two sets of limits” approach utilizes two different sets of UCL and LCL. In those two sets, the inner set of LCL and UCL is called the warning limits.
5. ARL is termed as ____
a) Average Run Length
b) Allocating Run Length
c) Affected Run Length
d) Assumed Run Length
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] The Average Run Length has an acronym of ARL. It provides useful way to make effective decisions for the sample size to be selected for the construction of the control chart.
6. The probability of a point to exceed the control limits for a control chart is 0.0040. What will be the ARL for this case?
a) 250
b) 278
c) 210
d) 216
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] We define ARL as the reciprocal of the probability of a point falling out of the area between control limits. Here,
7. For an average run length of 370, what will be the probability of a point falling out of the area between the control limits?
a) 0.0027
b) 0.0013
c) 0.0045
d) 0.0040
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] As we know,
ARL = 1⁄p
Putting value of ARL=370, we get, p=0.0027.
8. What is the full-form of ATS?
a) Average time to Stop
b) Average Time to Start
c) Average Time to Signal
d) Average Time to Select
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] ATS is the abbreviation used for the Average Time to Signal. It is a useful way to express the performance of a control chart very effectively and easily.
9. If for a process, the samples are taken 5 hrs apart and its ARL is 24.24, What will be ATS for it?
a) 121.2
b) 110.0
c) 113.3
d) 137.8
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] We know that,
ATS=ARL.h
Putting values h=5,ARL=24.24; we get,
ATS=121.2.
10. Decreasing sample size, will ____
a) Decrease the slope of OC curve
b) Increase the slope of OC curve
c) First decrease then increase the slope of OC curve
d) Makes OC curve have 0 slope
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] The slope of OC curve varies inversely with the sample size taken for the control chart construction. The decrease in the size of the sample taken to construct a control chart will increase the slope of OC curve.
11. Which of these statements, correctly describes the concept of rational subgroups?
a) If assignable causes are present, the chances of difference between subgroups should be largest
b) If assignable causes are present, the chances of difference between subgroups must be lowest
c) If assignable causes are present, the chances of difference between the subgroups must be moderate
d) If assignable causes are present, the chances of difference between the subgroups must be zero
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] Rational Subgroups concept says that, for subgroups, if assignable causes are present, the chances of differences between subgroups should be maximized, while the chance for differences due to these causes within a subgroup must be lowest.
12. If the ARL is 34.8 for a process which has ATS=69.6 hrs, what is the time interval before taking samples?
a) 0.5 hrs
b) 8 hrs
c) 2 hrs
d) 4 hrs
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] The time interval before taking samples is given by,
Putting values of ATS and ARL, we get h=2 hrs.
13. Which of these is not one of the sensitizing Western Electric rules that indicate “action needed” for Shewhart control charts from?
a) One or more points near a warning limit/control limit
b) One point plots outside 3-sigma control limits
c) Eight consecutive points plot on one side of the control line
d) Two of 3 consecutive points plot beyond the 2-sigma warning limits
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] The Western Electric rules which indicate “action needed” for Shewhart control charts do not state that, if one or more points are plotted near a warning limit or control limit will need an action to control the process.
14. 14 points in a row alternating up and down the mean will not indicate action needed for any process for which a control chart is plotted.
a) True
b) False
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] If 14 points in a row, on a control chart, plot alternating up and down the mean, will surely indicate that that process is giving warning signals. This means process is presently in-control but will go out-of-control in near future.
15. If an assignable cause is expected in the process, the subgroups taken subsequently should have maximum difference.
a) True
b) False
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] If a process is estimated to have an assignable cause, from the concept of Rational Subgroups; the chances of difference between the subgroups or samples should be maximum possible.
SQL MCQ Set 5
1. MIL STD 105E was first issued in ________
a) 1949
b) 1937
c) 1945
d) 1950
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] The standard sampling procedures for inspection by attributes were developed during World War II. So the MIL STD 105E was first issued in 1950.
2. How many revisions have been done in the case of MIL STD 105E?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] After the original version of MIL STD 105E been issued in 1950, there have been 4 revisions in it since then, and the latest version was issued in 1989.
3. MIL STD 105E is a ___
a) Acceptance sampling plan
b) Acceptance sampling system
c) Both Acceptance sampling plan and Acceptance sampling system
d) Neither acceptance sampling plan nor system
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] The acceptance sampling scheme is a an overall strategy specifying the way in which the sampling plans are to be used. MIL STD 105E is a collection of acceptance sampling schemes. So it’s an acceptance sampling system.
4. AQL is the ____
a) Acceptable Quality Level
b) Acceptance Quality Level
c) Associated Quality Level
d) Assigned Quality level
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] The main focal point of MIL STD 105E is AQL. The AQL stands for Acceptable Quality Level. This is the lowest quality of a product to be accepted.
5. Which of these is a derivative civilian standard which is quite similar to MIL STD 105E?
a) ANSI/ASQC Z1.4
b) ANSI/ASQC Z1.1
c) ANSI/ASQC Z1.8
d) ANSI/ASQC Z1.7
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] There is a derivative civilian standard originated from MIL STD 105E, ANSI/ASQC Z1.4. It is quite similar to the MIL STD 105E standard.
6. Which of these ISO standards were adopted from MIL STD 105E?
a) ISO 14000
b) ISO 9000
c) ISO 2859
d) ISO 6000
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] MIL STD 105E was also adopted by the international organization for standards as ISO 2859. This is quite similar to ANSI/ASQC Z1.4.
7. How many sample inspection levels are used in MIL STD 105E?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 5
d) 3
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] The sample size used in MIL STD 105E is determined by lot size and by the choice of inspection levels. Three general levels are provided.
8. Level I of inspection of MIL STD 105E requires about ____ amount inspection as Level II.
a) Zero
b) Half
c) 100%
d) 3/4th
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] There are generally 3 levels of inspection in the case of MIL STD 105E. The level I requires about one-half the amount of inspection as Level II.
9. Tightened inspection is instituted when at least ___ out of 5 consecutive lots have been rejected on original submission.
a) 1
b) 4
c) 2
d) 5
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] When the normal inspection is in effect, tightened inspection is instituted when at least two of five consecutive lots have been rejected on original submission.
10. When is the normal inspection to be instituted instead of tightened inspection?
a) When 3 lots are rejected consecutively
b) When 2 lots are accepted consecutively
c) When 5 lots are rejected consecutively
d) When 5 lots are accepted consecutively
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] When tightened inspection is in effect, normal inspection is instituted when five consecutive lots or batches are accepted on original inspection.
11. When should the inspection with the provision of MIL STD 105E be terminated?
a) When at least 10 consecutive lots remain on tightened inspection
b) When at least 7 consecutive lots remain on normal inspection
c) When at least 5 consecutive lots remain on tightened inspection
d) When at least 10 consecutive lots remain on normal inspection
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] In the event that ten consecutive lots remain on tightened inspection, inspection under the provision of MIL STD 105E should be terminated, and action should be taken at the supplier level to improve quality of submitted lots.
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