Q41: The final form of testing COTS software is___testing
- A. Unit
- B. Integration
- C. Alpha
- D. Module
- E. Beta
Answer
Answer E. Beta
Q42: Which of the following items should not be included in the software project management plan?
- A. The techniques and case tools to be used
- B. Detailed schedules, budgets and resource allocations
- C. The life cycle model to be used
- D. The organisational structure of the development organisation, project responsibilities, managerial objectives and priorities
- E. None of the above
Answer
Answer E. None of the above
Q43: An example of the risk involved in software development is
- A. Key personnel may resign before the product is complete
- B. The manufacturer of critical components (e.g. the hardware associated with a real-time system) may go bankrupt
- C. Technology changes may render the product obsolete
- D. Competitors may market a fully functional lower-cost equivalent package
- E. All of these are risks involved in software development
Answer
Answer E. All of these are risks involved in software development
Q44: Software Science bases its estimation of the size of a product on
- A. Files (Fi), Flows (Fl) and Processes (Pr)
- B. Lines of Code (kLOC)
- C. Function Points (FP)
- D. operands and operators
- E. Feature Points (FeP)
Answer
Answer D. operands and operators
Q45: Work that continues throughout the project and does not relate to any specific phase of software development is termed a(n)
- A. Milestone
- B. Project function
- C. Activity
- D. Task
- E. Baseline
Answer
Answer B. Project function
Q46: The advantage of following the IEEE Standard for drawing up a Software Project Management Plan (SPMP) – see IEEE Standard 1059.1 1987 – is
- A. It is drawn up by representatives from major software development organisations
- B. It is designed for all types of software products
- C. It is a framework that can be used irrespective of process model or specific techniques
- D. It can be tailored for each organisation for a particular application area, development team or technique
- E. All of the above
Answer
Answer E. All of the above
Q47: The best way to test the Software Project Management Plan (SPMP) is by
- A. Prototyping
- B. Inspection
- C. Simulation
- D. Compilation
- E. Debugging
Answer
Answer B. Inspection
Q48: The aim of software engineering is to produce software that is
- A. Fault-free
- B. Delivered on time
- C. Delivered within budget
- D. Satisfies users’ needs
- E. All of these are the aims of software engineering
Answer
Answer E. All of these are the aims of software engineering
Q49: A simple way of looking at the spiral software life-cycle model is as a waterfall model with each phase proceeded by
- A. Build-and-fix
- B. Freezing
- C. Synchronization
- D. Testing
- E. Risk analysis
Answer
Answer E. Risk analysis
Q50: Which of the following is not a phase of project management?
- A. Project planning
- B. Project scheduling
- C. Project controlling
- D. Project being
Answer
Answer D. Project being
Q51: Who introduced the bar charts?
- A. Williams henry
- B. Henry Gantt
- C. Jane Gantt
- D. Joseph henry
Answer
Answer B. Henry Gantt
Q52: Bar charts were modified later to obtain the milestone charts
- A. True
- B. False
Answer
Answer A. True
Q53: The full form of PERT is___
- A. Program Evaluation and Rate Technology
- B. Program Evaluation and Robot Technique
- C. Program Evaluation and Robot Technology
- D. Program Evaluation and Review Technique
Answer
Answer D. Program Evaluation and Review Technique
Q54: The full form of CPM is___
- A. Critical Path Method
- B. Control Path Method
- C. Critical Plan Management
- D. Control Path Management
Answer
Answer A. Critical Path Method
Q55: In bar charts, which colour is used to show the actual progress?
- A. Red
- B. Black
- C. Blue
- D. Green
Answer
Answer D. Green
Q56: A PERT network is activity-oriented while a CPM network is eventoriented
- A. True
- B. False
Answer
Answer A. True
Q57: ___are used to represent activity in a network diagram
- A. Circles
- B. Squares
- C. Rectangles
- D. Arrows
Answer
Answer D. Arrows
Q58: The shortest possible time in which an activity can be achieved under ideal circumstances is known as___
- A. Pessimistic time estimate
- B. Optimistic time estimate
- C. Expected time estimate
- D. The most likely time estimate
Answer
Answer B. Optimistic time estimate
Q59: According to the time estimates made by the PERT planners, the maximum time that would be needed to complete an activity is called as___
- A. The most likely time estimate
- B. Optimistic time estimate
- C. Pessimistic time estimate
- D. Expected time estimate
Answer
Answer C. Pessimistic time estimate
Q60: In a network, a critical path is the time-wise shortest path
- A. True
- B. False
Answer
Answer B. False
Q61: The difference between the maximum time available and the actual time needed to perform an activity is known as___
- A. Free float
- B. Independent float
- C. Total float
- D. Half float
Answer
Answer C. Total float
Q62: Network Diagrams are a___of the activities of a given project
- A. graphical representation
- B. statistical representation
- C. mathematical representation
- D. none of the above
Answer
Answer A. graphical representation
Q63: Activities drawn in a___in a network diagram
- A. imaginary activity
- B. random relationship
- C. serial relationship
- D. none of the above
Answer
Answer C. serial relationship
Q64: A Dummy activity is an activity which does not require a___
- A. time or resource
- B. imaginary activity
- C. dependence
- D. operations in the diagram
Answer
Answer A. time or resource
Q65: The best way to generate the WBS is as part of the___session
- A. Joint Project Planning
- B. decomposition
- C. completion
- D. Project Overview Statement
Answer
Answer A. Joint Project Planning
Q66: The technique for generating the WBS will___even the most complex project to a set of clearly defined activities
- A. document
- B. reduce
- C. guide
- D. all the above
Answer
Answer B. reduce
Q67: Once the team is satisfied it has completed the activity list for the firstlevel breakdown, the members are___
- A. finished
- B. reported
- C. Joined
- D. all the above
Answer
Answer A. finished
Q68: Which of these is not a cause of project failure?
- A. Improper Planning
- B. Poor weather condition
- C. Lack of technical skills
- D. Defective structural design
Answer
Answer B. Poor weather condition
Q69: A construction schedule is prepared after collecting
- A. Number of operations
- B. Output of Labour and Machinery
- C. Quantity of various items
- D. All the above
Answer
Answer D. All the above
Q70: In the time-cost optimization, using CPM method for network analysis, the crashing of the activities along the critical path is done starting with the activity having
- A. Longest duration
- B. Highest cost slope
- C. Least cost slope
- D. Shortest duration
Answer
Answer C. Least cost slope
Q71: Which qualities should a good project manager posse?
- A. Leadership
- B. Intigrity
- C. Knowledge of Construction
- D. All of the above
Answer
Answer D. All of the above
Q72: Construction Manager should have___skills
- A. Technical Skills
- B. Conceptual Skills
- C. Adaptability
- D. All of the above
Answer
Answer D. All of the above
Q73: Low cost, higher volume items requires
- A. no inspection
- B. little inspection
- C. intensive inspection
- D. 100% inspection
Answer
Answer B. little inspection
Q74: High cost, low volume items requires
- A. no inspection
- B. little inspection
- C. intensive inspection
- D. 100% inspection
Answer
Answer C. intensive inspection
Q75: The mean of sampling distribution is
- A. less than mean of process distribution
- B. more than mean of process distribution
- C. equal to mean of process distribution
- D. any of the above
Answer
Answer C. equal to mean of process distribution
Q76: The percent of the sample means will have values that are within +-3 standard deviations of the distribution mean is
- A. 95.5
- B. 96.7
- C. 97.6
- D. 99.7
Answer
Answer D. 99.7
Q77: The dividing lines between random and non random deviations from mean of the distribution are known as
- A. upper control limit
- B. lower control limit
- C. control limits
- D. two sigma limits
Answer
Answer C. control limits
Q78: The chart used to monitor variable is
- A. Range chart
- B. p-chart
- C. c-chart
- D. All of the above
Answer
Answer A. Range chart
Q79: The chart used to monitor attributes is
- A. Range chart
- B. Mean chart
- C. p-chart
- D. All of the above
Answer
Answer C. p-chart
Q80: Central tendency of a process is monitored in
- A. Range chart
- B. Mean chart
- C. p-chart
- D. c-chart
Answer
Answer B. Mean chart
