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Q1. For most organizations, top management consists of —–.
a. any manager above the level of foreman
b. the chief executive officer, the president, and his or her vice presidents
c. the chief executive officer only
d. the chief executive officer and the president only
Answer: (b.) the chief executive officer, the president, and his or her vice presidents
Q2. The management functions are —–.
a. planning, organizing, staffing, leading, and controlling
b. organizing, selling, accounting, leading, and controlling
c. planning, accounting, controlling, leading, and organizing
d. planning, organizing, selling, leading, and controlling
Answer: (a.) planning, organizing, staffing, leading, and controlling
Q3. The categories of management roles are —–.
a. figurehead, leader, and liaison
b. monitor, disseminator, and spokesperson
c. interpersonal, decisional, and entrepreneur
d. interpersonal, informational, and decisional
Answer: (d.) interpersonal, informational, and decisional
Q4. The skills that all managers need are —–.
a. planning, organizing, and controlling
b. conceptual, technical, and human
c. effectiveness, efficiency, and planning
d. interpersonal, decisional, and informational
Answer: (b.) conceptual, technical, and human
Q5. Which of the following is a reality of a manager’s job?
a. A manager’s job is less a science than an art.
b. Managers are self-starting, self-directing, and autonomous.
c. Managers have no regular duties to perform.
d. Managers are reflective and systematic planners.
Answer: (a.) A manager’s job is less a science than an art.
Q6. Classical management thinkers —–.
a. utilize the “it all depends” approach
b. utilize quantitative decision-making tools
c. look for the one best way to do something
d. realize that their most important and complex resource is people.
Answer: (c.) look for the one best way to do something
Q7. The Hawthorne studies are an important foundation of the —– approaches.
a. classical
b. human relations
c. administrative
d. quantitative
Answer: (b.) human relations
Q8. Models, simulations, and queuing theory are examples of techniques found in the —– approach to management.
a. classical
b. quantitative
c. bureaucratic modern
d. organization
Answer: (b.) quantitative
Q9. Which of the following statements does not accurately reflect the characteristics of contingency theory?
a. Managers should draw on all past theories in attempting to analyze and solve problems.
b. The best way to initially approach all management problems is through scientific management.
c. The contingency approach is integrative in nature.
d. Managers should stay flexible and consider the alternatives and fallback positions when defining and attacking problems.
Answer: (b.) The best way to initially approach all management problems is through scientific management.
Q10. In a fast-changing environment, the most effective method of improving the quality of a product would be —–.
a. Kaizen
b. bureaucracy
c. reengineering
d. management science
Answer: (c.) reengineering
Q11. An organization that regularly affects and is affected by various and constantly changing forces can be described as a(n) —–.
a. natural force
b. sociocultural force
c. open system
d. closed system
Answer: (c.) open system
Q12. Of the following, which is a directly interactive force in an organization’s external environment?
a. technological leadership
b. forces
c. economic customers
d. forces
Answer: (d.) forces
Q13. Which of the following is not an indirectly interactive force in an organization’s external environment?
a. sociocultural forces
b. competitive forces
c. legal/political forces
d. technological forces
Answer: (b.) competitive forces
Q14. The term organizational climate defines —–.
a. how the employees feel about working for the organization
b. how organizations share values, beliefs, habits, norms, philosophies, experiences, and behaviors
c. what the company does best
d. a key concept that guides managers and their actions
Answer: (a.) how the employees feel about working for the organization
Q15. Boundary spanning sources include all of the following except —–.
a. customers
b. competitors
c. government statistics
d. core values
Answer: (a.) customers
Q16. A manager’s first step in the decision-making process is to —–_.
a. define the problem
b. identify limiting factors
c. develop potential alternatives
d. establish a control and evaluation system
Answer: (b.) identify limiting factors
Q17. When a manager knows what the problem is and what the alternatives are, the manager is making the decision under the condition of —–.
a. imperfect resources
b. risk
c. uncertainty
d. certainty
Answer: (b.) risk
Q18. A quantitative technique for decision making that shows a complete picture of potential alternative decision paths is called —–.
a. the Delphi technique
b. a decision tree
c. brainstorming
d. payback analysis
Answer: (b.) a decision tree
Q19. A group effort of generating alternative ideas that can help a manager solve a problem is called —–__.
a. the Delphi technique
b. out-of-the box thinking
c. brainstorming
d. the nominal group technique
Answer: (c.) brainstorming
Q20. All of the following are important strategies that a manager can use to create a more effective decision-making environment except —–.
a. encourage others to make decisions
b. be ready to try things
c. rely solely upon himself or herself
d. recognize the importance of quality information
Answer: (c.) rely solely upon himself or herself
Q21. The managerial function that provides direction, a common sense of purpose for the organization through the development of goals and objectives, and the means to reach them is —–.
a. planning
b. controlling
c. leading
d. organizing
Answer: (a.) planning
Q22. The statement that explains the primary purpose of the organization and why the organization exists is the —–__.
a. budget
b. strategic plan
c. mission statement
d. operational plan
Answer: (c.) mission statement
Q23. Plans that usually span one year or less, are developed by middle managers, and are concerned with what the major subsystems within each organization must do are —–.
a. strategic plans
b. tactical plans
c. operational plans
d. contingency plans
Answer: (b.) tactical plans
Q24. Goals that are established by top management and relate to where the organization wants to be in the future are —–.
a. operational objectives
b. budgets
c. standing goals
d. strategic goals
Answer: (d.) strategic goals
Q25. All of the following are significant major barriers to effective planning except a(n) —–__.
a. lack of commitment to the planning process
b. overreliance on the planning department
c. overemphasis on the uncontrollable environmental factors
d. lack of focus on the long term
Answer: (c.) overemphasis on the uncontrollable environmental factors
Q26. The unbroken line of relationships from the bottom to the top of an organization is called the —–__.
a. span of control
b. unity of command
c. division of labor
d. chain of command
Answer: (d.) chain of command
Q27. The degree to which organizational tasks are subdivided into separate work jobs is called —–.
a. decentralization
b. division of labor
c. span of control
d. centralization
Answer: (b.) division of labor
Q28. The formal and legitimate right of a manager to make decisions, give orders, and allocate resources is known as —–_.
a. accountability
b. power
c. authority
d. responsibility
Answer: (c.) authority
Q29. The philosophy of management that focuses upon systematically retaining authority at the top of the organization is called —–__.
a. centralization
b. decentralization
c. departmentalization
d. specialization
Answer: (a.) centralization
Q30. Which of the following statements does not correctly characterize the difference between the formal and the informal organization?
a. In the formal organization, the formal organization authority comes from the position.
b. Informal power follows the chain of command, but authority does not.
c. Leverage in the informal organization is informal power that goes with the person.
d. Groups give power in the informal organization.
Answer: (b.) Informal power follows the chain of command, but authority does not.
Q31. Which of the following would characterize a mechanistic structure?
a. Free flow of information
b. Few rules and regulations
c. Centralized decision making
d. All of the above
Answer: (c.) Centralized decision making
Q32. Which of the following organizations would most likely have an organic structure?
a. A small organization utilizing small-batch technology in a changing environment
b. A young organization operating in a very stable environment
c. A large, old organization operating in a stable environment
d. An old organization operating with mass production
Answer: (a.) A small organization utilizing small-batch technology in a changing environment
Q33. Which of the following is not one of the advantages of the functional structure?
a. Minimized duplication
b. Quick response time to changes in the environment
c. Well-defined channels of communication
d. Simplified training
Answer: (b.) Quick response time to changes in the environment
Q34. Which of the following statements characterizes the matrix structure?
a. Communicating and coordination are decreased in the matrix structure.
b. The matrix structure is the best of all possible structures and has few disadvantages.
c. Although it’s flexible, the matrix structures will always adversely affect the motivation level of the individual employee.
d. The matrix structure is flexible and combines the advantages offunctional specialization and the accountability of the divisional structure.
Answer: (d.) The matrix structure is flexible and combines the advantages offunctional specialization and the accountability of the divisional structure.
Q35. Which of the following is an important disadvantage of the team structure?
a. Large amounts of time are required for employee meetings and training.
b. It eliminates levels of management.
c. It hurts employee motivation.
d. Time required for decision making is increased.
Answer: (a.) Large amounts of time are required for employee meetings and training.
Q36. The first step in the process of planned change is
a. develop the goal(s).
b. recognize the need for change.
c. diagnose the problem.
d. select the method of intervention.
Answer: (b.) recognize the need for change.
Q37. Management consultant Larry Greiner contends that it takes a(n) —– for an organization to evolve to the next phase of growth.
a. crisis
b. opportunity
c. loss of sales
d. merge with another company
Answer: (a.) crisis
Q38. The bridge of —–_ separates people from change.
a. acceptance
b. resistance
c. economics
d. opportunity
Answer: (b.) resistance
Q39. Before a new established behavior can take place, the previous behavior(s) must be.
a. forgotten and retrained.
b. unfrozen and completed.
c. thawed and changed.
d. frozen and unfrozen.
Answer: (c.) thawed and changed.
Q40. A management technique for instituting change by thoroughly analyzing problems and implementing long-term solutions is known as
a. management by objectives.
b. creative management.
c. organizational development.
d. occupational management.
Answer: (c.) organizational development.
Q41. The primary purposes of staffing include all of the following except
a. disciplining employees.
b. finding employees.
c. hiring employees.
d. rewarding employees.
Answer: (a.) disciplining employees.
Q42. Affirmative action is defined as
a. any employment decision that harms one individual more than any other.
b. any employment decision that is based upon sexual conduct.
c. a law that requires employers to make an extra effort to employ protected groups.
d. any employment decision that harms one group more thananother.
Answer: (c.) a law that requires employers to make an extra effort to employ protected groups.
Q43. An in-depth study of all the positions in an organization is described as a
a. job evaluation.
b. job description.
c. job analysis.
d. job specification.
Answer: (c.) job analysis.
Q44. Any criterion of performance measure used as a basis for an employment decision is a(n)
a. assessment center.
b. performance standard.
c. test.
d. None of the above.
Answer: (c.) test.
Q45. All of the following would be considered a separation except a(n)
a. demotion.
b. layoff.
c. retirement.
d. firing.
Answer: (a.) demotion.
Q46. In order for a group to be considered a team,
a. at least two people must be involved.
b. the members must interact regularly and coordinate their work.
c. the members must share a common objective.
d. All of the above.
Answer: (d.) All of the above.
Q47. Teams designed to complete a specific task in an organization are called
a. product development teams.
b. project teams.
c. quality teams.
d. process teams.
Answer: (b.) project teams.
Q48. The stage of group development in which the team members come together to resolve conflict, achieve unity, and understand the roles members pay is:
a. performing.
b. storming.
c. forming.
d. norming.
Answer: (d.) norming.
Q49. The benefits of teams include all the following except
a. flexibility.
b. commitment.
c. team training costs.
d. synergy.
Answer: (c.) team training costs.
Q50. When a manager chooses to ignore a conflict situation, the manager is choosing which conflict resolution strategy?
a. Compromise
b. Collaboration
c. Appeal to a superordinate objectives
d. Avoidance
Answer: (d.) Avoidance
Q51. Motivational theories that emphasize the needs that motivate people are called
a. process theories.
b. goal-setting theories.
c. content theories.
d. path-goal theories.
Answer: (c.) content theories.
Q52. All of the following are examples of hygiene factors except
a. the work itself.
b. salary.
c. company policies.
d. working conditions.
Answer: (a.) the work itself.
Q53. According to Alderfer’s ERG theory, existence needs can be described as
a. needs for satisfactory relationships with others.
b. calls for realizations of potential.
c. calls for the achievements of competence.
d. a person’s well being.
Answer: (d.) a person’s well being.
Q54. According to expectancy theory, the intensity of motivation functions is
a. very difficult to determine.
b. indirectly proportional to perceived rewards.
c. directly proportional to perceived or expected rewards.
d. indirectly proportional to expected rewards.
Answer: (c.) directly proportional to perceived or expected rewards.
Q55. When a manager redesigns a job so that the job includes an increased number of tasks, but does not address the issues of the quality of the challenge of the tasks, the manager is utilizing
a. job depth.
b. job rotation.
c. job enrichment.
d. job enlargement.
Answer: (d.) job enlargement.
Q56. Several studies regarding leadership traits have proven which of the following:
a. Leadership traits are universal.
b. No specific list of successful leadership traits exists.
c. Leadership traits, skills, and behaviors are common.
d. Successful leaders have similar personalities.
Answer: (b.) No specific list of successful leadership traits exists.
Q57. Which type of power is least associated with the autocratic style of leadership?
a. Referent
b. Expert
c. Formal
d. Non-conforming
Answer: (a.) Referent
Q58. When sport coaches listen to players’ suggestions and feedback during game intermission, they are using what type of leadership?
a. Free-rein
b. Autocratic
c. General
d. Participating
Answer: (d.) Participating
Q59. The contingency, path-goal, and life-cycle theories of leadership are considered
a. autocratic.
b. organizational.
c. situational.
d. unrealistic.
Answer: (c.) situational.
Q60. Vision, charisma, integrity, and symbolism are all on the list of attributes associated with what type of leaders?
a. Contingency
b. Informal
c. Transformational
d. Transactional
Answer: (c.) Transformational
Q61. Communication is complete when which of the following takes place?
a. Verbal expression
b. Face-to-face communication
c. Written reply
d. Mutual understanding
Answer: (d.) Mutual understanding
Q62. A return look of disdain without comment from an unhappy person may be interpreted as a
a. verbal reply.
b. stereotype.
c. non-verbal communication.
d. semantics.
Answer: (c.) non-verbal communication.
Q63. “Guess what I just heard about the manager’s new secretary?” typifies
a. feedback.
b. the grapevine.
c. noise.
d. downward communication.
Answer: (b.) the grapevine.
Q64. The objectives that eventually determine the selection of control methods are developed during what function?
a. Planning
b. Organizing
c. Staffing
d. Leading
Answer: (a.) Planning
Q65. The control process requires managers to establish standards for performance, measure performance against those standards, and
a. know their organization’s mission.
b. establish technical standards.
c. take necessary actions to correct deviations.
d. control unexpected situations.
Answer: (c.) take necessary actions to correct deviations.
Q66. Which of the following are the three basic types of controls?
a. Prevention, diagnostic, and therapeutic
b. Feedforward, in-process, and diagnostic
c. Prevention, feedback, and feedforward
d. Feedforward, concurrent, and feedback
Answer: (d.) Feedforward, concurrent, and feedback
Q67. A budget is purposefully designed as what type of control to provide summary information to management?
a. Prevention
b. Feedback
c. Feedforward
d. Concurrent
Answer: (d.) Concurrent
Q68. Performance appraisals are a part of what type of controls?
a. Accounting
b. Human resource
c. Inventory
d. Financial
Answer: (b.) Human resource
Q69. The leading and recognized intellectual gurus of TQM include all of the following except
a. Philip B. Crosby
b. Joseph M. Juran
c. W. Edwards Deming
d. William Dirft
Answer: (d.) William Dirft
Q70. In an effort to be successful, organizations must champion total quality management
a. at lower management exclusively.
b. mostly toward top management.
c. toward all levels of management and employees.
d. to suppliers only.
Answer: (c.) toward all levels of management and employees.
Q71. Which TQM advocate authored the Fourteen Points of improvement regarding quality control?
a. Walter R. Shewhart
b. Philip B. Crosby
c. W. Edwards Deming
d. Joseph M. Juran
Answer: (c.) W. Edwards Deming
Q72. An undaunted acceptance and commitment for total quality management means that people must do which of the following?
a. Change
b. Energize
c. Behave
d. Dominate
Answer: (a.) Change
Q73. Within the TQM environment, suppliers and customers are thought of as what kind of partners?
a. Controllable
b. External
c. Demanding
d. Buying
Answer: (b.) External
Q74. Which of the following is not a proactive reason why a business becomes international?
a. Economies of scale
b. Searching for new customers
c. Remaining competitive
d. Needing raw materials and other resources
Answer: (c.) Remaining competitive
Q75. Which of the following is not a common characteristic of most multi-national corporations?
a. Creating foreign affiliates that may be owned or jointly held
b. Relying upon standardization of the product and marketing that product throughout the world
c. Viewing the world as the market
d. Locating affiliates in the developed countries of the world.
Answer: (b.) Relying upon standardization of the product and marketing that product throughout the world
Q76. Some of the major concerns of a multinational company are the stability of a country’s currency and the availability of needed raw materials and supplies. These are elements of which environment?
a. Political
b. Legal
c. Economic
d. Sociocultural
Answer: (c.) Economic
Q77. Which of the following describes planning and the international manager?
a. It is far less complicated for the international manager than for the manager’s domestic counterpart.
b. Planning is far more complicated for the international manager than for the manager’s domestic counterpart.
c. There is no difference in the level of difficulty between the planning in domestic and international operations.
d. Planning is done by host-country personnel only.
Answer: (b.) Planning is far more complicated for the international manager than for the manager’s domestic counterpart.
Q78. Which of the following describes the sociocultural dilemma facing the international manager?
a. The international manager needs only to know the culture of the host country.
b. Most host countries require international managers to apply for citizenship in order to acquire knowledge of the culture.
c. The manager should carefully avoid integrating the home- and host-country cultures.
d. The international manager not only must understand the culture of the host country, but also how that culture differs from his or her home-country culture.
Answer: (d.) The international manager not only must understand the culture of the host country, but also how that culture differs from his or her home-country culture.
