Marketing Management NMIMS MCQ Practice Set 7

Q1. It is important to manage the distribution channel intermediaries to minimise —– customer and —– the competitive advantage for the firm.
a. training, motivation
b. Market, product
c. The cost of serving, optimizing
d. None of these

Answer

c. The cost of serving, optimizing

Q2. A systematic approach should be followed for designing distribution channel.
a. True
b. False

Answer

a. True

Q3. The first service output issue is the lot size that the channel permits a customer to purchase on every occasion.
a. True
b. False

Answer

a. True

Q4. For a consumer perishable, the channel has to be long.
a. True
b. False

Answer

b. False

Q5. The company should also evaluate its existing channel alternatives for sales, delivery and service to customers in terms of efficiency and effectiveness.
a. True
b. False

Answer

a. True

Q6. The levels of intensity of firms remain same in all cases.
a. True
b. False

Answer

b. False

Q7. The channel management decisions involve —–, —–, —–, —– and —– of channel members.
a. Market, product, producer, supplier, services
b. Selection, training, motivation, evaluation, modification
c. Customer, product, producer, supplier, Management
d. None of these

Answer

b. Selection, training, motivation, evaluation, modification

Q8. Channel strategies can be grouped into —–, —– and —– factors.
a. Partner, Relationship, Management
b. Emergence, paradigms, market
c. Market, product, producer
d. None of these

Answer

c. Market, product, producer

Q9. Under —– Programs initiatives, companies have started setting up departments known as distributor relationship management.
a. Emergence of new paradigms
b. Partner Relationship Management
c. Periodic
d. None of these

Answer

b. Partner Relationship Management

Q10. In many instances, the overall channel strategy becomes obsolete due to —– and path breaking business strategies.
a. Periodic
b. Independent
c. Emergence of new paradigms
d. None of these

Answer

c. Emergence of new paradigms

Q11. The performance of channel members should be evaluated on a —– basis.
a. Periodic
b. Independent
c. Administered VMS
d. None of these

Answer

a. Periodic

Q12. A traditional channel has an —– producer, wholesalers and retailers.
a. Administered VMS
b. Value-Added Resellers
c. Independent
d. None of these

Answer

c. Independent

Q13. Manufacturer of a strong brand, large retail formats are examples of —–
a. Administered VMS
b. Value-Added Resellers
c. Physical distribution
d. None of these

Answer

a. Administered VMS

Q14. —– purchase goods from the manufacturers, modify it and then resell.
a. Physical distribution
b. Supplies, raw materials
c. Value-Added Resellers
d. None of these

Answer

c. Value-Added Resellers

Q15. Logistics is concerned with the management of —– of material.
a. Supplies, raw materials
b. Physical distribution
c. Replenishment Production System (RPS)
d. None of these

Answer

b. Physical distribution

Q16. The supplier logistics takes care of the flow of —– and —– from vendor to the company.
a. Replenishment, System
b. Vertical, horizontal
c. Supplies, raw materials
d. None of these

Answer

c. Supplies, raw materials

Q17. —– analyses the trends of all outgoing shipments from distribution centers to all dealers and of inventory movements at factory warehouse.
a. Replenishment Production System (RPS)
b. Vertical
c. Direct marketing
d. None of these

Answer

a. Replenishment Production System (RPS)

Q18. —– conflict arises when the manufacturer has two or more channels.
a. Direct marketing
b. Spatial convenience
c. Vertical
d. None of these

Answer

c. Vertical

Q19. The technique through which companies reach directly to the customers is called —–
a. Direct marketing
b. Spatial convenience
c. Pricing decisions
d. None of these

Answer

a. Direct marketing

Q20. The degree to which the channel facilitates customers to purchase the product is known as —–
a. Pricing decisions
b. Market Penetration
c. Spatial convenience
d. None of these

Answer

c. Spatial convenience

Q21. —– are usually considered a part of the general strategy for achieving a broadly defined goal.
a. Market Penetration
b. Pricing decisions
c. Market Skimming
d. None of these

Answer

b. Pricing decisions

Q22. In —– the firm may decide in favour of a lower price to penetrate deeper into the market and to stimulate market growth and capture a large market share.
a. Market Penetration
b. Market Skimming
c. Skimming pricing
d. None of these

Answer

a. Market Penetration

Q23. Under —–, the firm may decide to charge high initial price to take advantage of the fact that some buyers are willing to pay a much higher price than others as the product is of high value to them.
a. Skimming pricing
b. Market Skimming
c. Price policies
d. None of these

Answer

b. Market Skimming

Q24. The —– is followed to cover up the product development cost as early as possible before competitors enter into the market.
a. Skimming pricing
b. Price policies
c. Price
d. None of these

Answer

a. Skimming pricing

Q25. Formulating —– and setting the price are the most important aspects of managerial decision-making.
a. Price
b. Price policies
c. Marketing strategy
d. None of these

Answer

b. Price policies

Q26. —– is the source of revenue, which the firm seeks to maximise. It is the most important device a firm can use to expand its market share.
a. Price
b. Marketing strategy
c. Cost
d. None of these

Answer

a. Price

Q27. —– is only one aspect of marketing strategy and a firm must consider it together with its product and promotional policies.
a. Cost
b. Marketing strategy
c. Promotional cost
d. None of these

Answer

b. Marketing strategy

Q28. —– must be regarded only as an indicator of the price, which ought to be set after taking into consideration the demand and the competitive situation.
a. Cost
b. Promotional cost
c. Cost-plus pricing
d. None of these

Answer

a. Cost

Q29. The initial direct —– is usually high in relation to the sales volume, and special price concessions are granted in connection with introductory offers.
a. Cost-plus pricing
b. Product tailoring
c. Promotional cost
d. None of these

Answer

c. Promotional cost

Q30. —– is especially useful while deciding prices for public utility and for tailored or customised products.
a. Product tailoring
b. Cost-plus pricing
c. Price warfare
d. None of these

Answer

b. Cost-plus pricing

Q31. —– involves determining the product design after the selling price is determined.
a. Product tailoring
b. Price warfare
c. Discount
d. None of these

Answer

a. Product tailoring

Q32. —– is defined as the usage of pricing strategy as a means to secure competitive advantage in the market.
a. Discount
b. Pricing Objectives
c. Price warfare
d. None of these

Answer

c. Price warfare

Q33. Earlier, price was a tool for —– marketers.
a. Pricing Objectives
b. Discount
c. Market Skimming
d. None of these

Answer

b. Discount

Q34. The first step towards pricing is to determine —–
a. Pricing Objectives
b. Market Skimming
c. Full cost pricing
d. None of these

Answer

a. Pricing Objectives

Q35. In —– strategy, prices are high in early stages to recover costs as soon as possible.
a. Full cost pricing
b. Going rate
c. Market Skimming
d. None of these

Answer

c. Market Skimming

Q36. Under —– method, price is set up to cover manufacturing costs plus a pre-decided amount of profits.
a. Going rate
b. Full cost pricing
c. Psychological
d. None of these

Answer

b. Full cost pricing

Q37. In telecom sector, the companies often follow the —– pricing.
a. Psychological
b. Law of Demand
c. Going rate
d. None of these

Answer

c. Going rate

Q38. Some products are abruptly priced at 9.99 or 99.99. It is known as —– pricing.
a. Psychological
b. Law of Demand
c. Audience
d. None of these

Answer

a. Psychological

Q39. A consumer purchases more of a good if the price goes down and vice versa. This is known as —–
a. Audience
b. Format
c. Law of Demand
d. None of these

Answer

c. Law of Demand

Q40. It is necessary to identify the target —– before developing any integrated marketing communication program.
a. Format
b. Audience
c. Communication, sales
d. None of these

Answer

b. Audience

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