Marketing Management NMIMS MCQ Practice Set 6

Q1. —– is a goal directed action for the firm and branding strategy for a firm is the decision of the firm to identify and manage the number and nature of common and unique elements or value propositions applied to a set of products sold by the firm.
a. Strategy
b. Brand sponsorship
c. Umbrella branding
d. None of these

Answer

a. Strategy

Q2. The —– decision involves whether it should be a manufacturer’s brand (also known as a national brand) or a private brand (also known as private label) or partly manufacturer’s brand and partly private brand.
a. Umbrella branding
b. Brand position
c. Brand sponsorship
d. None of these

Answer

c. Brand sponsorship

Q3. Under —– or family branding, all the products are branded with the same name.
a. Brand position
b. Umbrella branding
c. Brand knowledge
d. None of these

Answer

b. Umbrella branding

Q4. —– is that part of brand identity and value proposition that is to be actively communicated to the target audience which depicts advantages of the brand over competitors.
a. Brand knowledge
b. Marketing activity
c. Brand position
d. None of these

Answer

c. Brand position

Q5. —– is based on the thoughts, feelings and images that consumers associate with the brand.
a. Brand knowledge
b. Marketing activity
c. Core
d. None of these

Answer

a. Brand knowledge

Q6. Designing a marketing and communications strategy requires the big-picture insight that guides the —– and makes sure all activities add up to success
a. Core
b. Augmented
c. Marketing activity
d. None of these

Answer

c. Marketing activity

Q7. The cooling of an AC forms a part of its —– layer.
a. Augmented
b. Core
c. Impulse
d. None of these

Answer

b. Core

Q8. Free services offered by a car company, is a part of —–product.
a. Impulse
b. Unsought
c. Augmented
d. None of these

Answer

c. Augmented

Q9. Purchase of a deodorant at the point of purchase, is called —– purchase.
a. Impulse
b. Unsought
c. Line
d. None of these

Answer

a. Impulse

Q10. Products like insurance and raincoat are —– goods.
a. Unsought
b. Line
c. Expansion
d. None of these

Answer

a. Unsought

Q11. Clinic Plus shampoo, Close-up tooth paste, Dove soap etc. are all part of Unilever’s product —–
a. Expansion
b. Maturity
c. Line
d. None of these

Answer

c. Line

Q12. A company introduces a product in the same category as its earlier products. It is known as product line —–
a. Maturity
b. Expansion
c. Connotations
d. None of these

Answer

b. Expansion

Q13. In —– stage, marketers usually follow strategies like product modification, market modification and sales promotions.
a. Connotations
b. Maturity
c. Everett M. Rogers
d. None of these

Answer

b. Maturity

Q14. The term ‘new product’ has many —–
a. term
b. people
c. Connotations
d. None of these

Answer

c. Connotations

Q15. —– observes that some researchers have favoured a consumer-oriented approach in defining new products.
a. Everett M. Rogers
b. Mark
c. Chaplin
d. None of these

Answer

a. Everett M. Rogers

Q16. New product development process does not play a crucial role in deciding the future of the organisation.
a. True
b. False

Answer

b. False

Q17. Introducing new products is rather a difficult strategic alternative as it involves long-range planning.
a. True
b. False

Answer

a. True

Q18. The first stage of the new product’s evolution begins with an —– for the product.
a. Synthetic methods
b. Sales potential
c. Idea
d. None of these

Answer

c. Idea

Q19. Indirect methods refer to the —–
a. Sales potential
b. Synthetic methods
c. Concept screening
d. None of these

Answer

b. Synthetic methods

Q20. In —– step, the potential of a new product entry into the market structure is estimated.
a. Concept screening
b. Advertising copy
c. Sales potential
d. None of these

Answer

c. Sales potential

Q21. At —– stage, the ideas collected are scrutinised to eliminate those inconsistent with the product policies and objectives of the firm.
a. Concept screening
b. Advertising copy
c. Product formulation
d. None of these

Answer

a. Concept screening

Q22. The main objective of advertising is creating —–, which can reflect the product’s points of difference to the consumer.
a. Product formulation
b. Concept testing
c. Advertising copy
d. None of these

Answer

c. Advertising copy

Q23. While advertising formulation happens in the advertising agency, the —– happens in the laboratory.
a. Product formulation
b. Concept testing
c. Product manager
d. None of these

Answer

a. Product formulation

Q24. —– step is conducted many times and also before developing the prototype.
a. Product manager
b. Overcapacity
c. Concept testing
d. None of these

Answer

c. Concept testing

Q25. The —– should not introduce a new product if an even better competing new product is available.
a. Overcapacity
b. Product manager
c. Daimler-Benz
d. None of these

Answer

b. Product manager

Q26. —– may further be caused by cyclical fluctuations in sales.
a. Daimler-Benz
b. Adoption process
c. Overcapacity
d. None of these

Answer

c. Overcapacity

Q27. Due to oil price hike and the resultant cost compulsion, —– that had built its reputation on limousines, had to introduce a compact car for those who want ‘less comfortable interiors to exciting driving experience’.
a. Adoption process
b. Daimler-Benz
c. Diffusion
d. None of these

Answer

b. Daimler-Benz

Q28. The results of marketing research will not help in taking a decision about the existing products and services of the firm.
a. True
b. False

Answer

b. False

Q29. Improvement may mean redesigning the product or producing it at a lower cost.
a. True
b. False

Answer

a. True

Q30. A planned and systematic product elimination program may not contribute substantially to the firm’s profitability and future growth.
a. True
b. False

Answer

b. False

Q31. The process of accepting new product ideas by individual customers is popularly known as —–
a. Diffusion
b. Evaluation
c. Adoption process
d. None of these

Answer

c. Adoption process

Q32. —– is the process by which the acceptance of an innovation (a new product, a new service, new ideas or new practice) is spread by communication (mass media, sales people or informal conversations) to members of the social systems.
a. Diffusion
b. Evaluation
c. Major time, place, and possession
d. None of these

Answer

a. Diffusion

Q33. The —– stage represents a kind of ‘mental trial’ of the product innovation.
a. Major time, place, and possession
b. from producer to consumer, backward
c. Evaluation
d. None of these

Answer

c. Evaluation

Q34. Marketing channel management refers to the choice and control of the intermediaries.
a. True
b. False

Answer

a. True

Q35. The distribution channel is the route taken as they move from the end user to the manufacturer.
a. True
b. False

Answer

b. False

Q36. The use or selection of a channel is not influenced by the type of product under consideration.
a. True
b. False

Answer

b. False

Q37. The intermediaries act as middlemen between the producer and the customer in the distribution system.
a. True
b. False

Answer

a. True

Q38. A distribution channel overcomes the —–, —– and —– gaps that separate goods and services.
a. Major time, place, and possession
b. producer to consumer, backward, time
c. Sales, delivery, service
d. None of these

Answer

a. Major time, place, and possession

Q39. Some of the flows are forward flows —– whereas some are —– from consumer to producer flows.
a. Sales, delivery, service
b. The cost of serving, optimizing
c. from producer to consumer, backward
d. None of these

Answer

c. from producer to consumer, backward

Q40. A manufacturer needs three kinds of channel, namely —–, —– and —– channel.
a. Sales, delivery, service
b. cost of serving, optimizing, place
c. Selection, training, motivation
d. None of these

Answer

a. Sales, delivery, service

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