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Q1: When faced with a claim of equal pay, which of the following automatic defences is NOT available to the employer

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Answer: The difference in pay is due to a collective agreement established after a transfer due to compulsory competitive tendering.

Q2: When a woman claims under the Equality Act 2010 due to discrimination on the basis of her pregnancy, with whom should she be compared

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Answer: Herself in a non-pregnant state / or a woman exercising, seeking to exercise or having exercised a maternity right.

Q3: There exist several exceptions to a claim of direct sex discrimination. Which of the following would NOT amount to an exception

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Answer: Where the nature of the job is dangerous and women are not hired to prevent their exposure to the risk of harm.

Q4: Where a person treats a woman, on the ground of her sex, less favourably (or unfavourably) than he/she treats or would treat a man, this is an example of

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Answer: Direct discrimination.

Q5: Following a successful claim of discrimination, which of the listed remedies may NOT be awarded by a tribunal

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Answer: An order for specific performance.

Q6: Under the Working Time Regulations 1998, what is the maximum working week of an adult (calculated, typically, over a seventeen week period)

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Answer: 48 hours.

Q7: Under TUPE 2006, the transfer of shares will not normally be considered to amount to a relevant transfer. Which of the following must the transferor ensure occurs to avoid TUPE 2006 applying

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Answer: The two firms are clearly separated as legal entities.

Q8: In relation to the Working Time Regulations, adult workers are entitled to how much rest in each 24-hour period

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Answer: 11 hours.

Q9: Under the Health and Safety at Work Act 1974, an employer has a responsibility for the health and safety of which category of individual

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Answer: Employees and non-employees (such as independent contractors).

Q10: Which of the following is NOT a duty imposed on agents

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Answer: An obligation to maintain all records of agency agreements together and to keep these secret from the principal.

Q11: The rights and obligations provided under the Commercial Agents (Council Directive) Regulations 1993 are restricted to which of the following

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Answer: Goods.

Q12: Which of the following is NOT an example of a business organization

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Answer: An employee.

Q13: Which of the following are types of partner:
i) A ‘typical’ partner under the Partnership Act 1890.
ii) A silent partner.
iii) A salaried partner.
iv) A partner by estoppel

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Answer: All of the above

Q14: Which of the following is NOT a duty imposed on partners

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Answer: Fidelity (where the partner enters a partnership in another, unrelated, industry).

Q15: Which of the following is NOT a feature of a simple partnership

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Answer: Partnerships may only involve up to 20 persons.

Q16: Under the Partnership Act 1890, which of the following events may lead to a partnership being brought to an end:
i) When a partner suffers some permanent form of incapacity.
ii) Where a partner wilfully or persistently breaches the partnership agreement.
iii) Where it is just and equitable to end the partnership.
iv) Where a partner enters into competition with the partnership (with the other partners’ consent)

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Answer: i, ii and iii.

Q17: Which of the following is NOT a feature of a limited company

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Answer: The immunity from criminal prosecutions of the directors of a company.

Q18: In relation to a private limited company and a public limited company, which of the following are correct:
i) Only one shareholder is necessary and no secretary is required for a private limited company.
ii) The public limited company must have an allotted share capital of £50,000.
iii) The public limited company must hold an Annual General Meeting each calendar year.
iv) Only the private limited company may offer its shares to the public

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Answer: i, ii and iii.

Q19: One of the following features is NOT indicative of a ‘small’ company as provided for in the Companies Act 2006 (as amended)

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Answer: The company is registered as a public limited company.

Q20: In relation to general meetings of a public company (other than an Annual General Meeting), how many days’ minimum notice are required to be provided to members under the Companies Act 2006, s. 306

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Answer: 14 days.

Q21: The quorum required at a meeting to allow resolutions to be effectively moved, for a company limited by shares and with more than one member, is

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Answer: Two qualifying persons.

Q22: To pass an ordinary resolution, what is the necessary percentage of the votes in favour

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Answer: Over 50%.

Q23: The records of resolutions of members moved otherwise than at general meetings must be held for a minimum period of how long

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Answer: Ten years from the date of the resolution.

Q24: The Insolvency Act 1986 s. 122 provides for grounds where an order for the compulsory liquidation of a company may be made. Which of the following is NOT included in that section

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Answer: The number of members of the company is reduced below 10.

Q25: The purpose of a liquidator appointed to a company is NOT to take which of the following actions

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Answer: Attempt to save the company as a going concern where possible.

Q26: Where a company limited by shares transfers these at a higher value than the nominal value, what must happen to this income

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Answer: Be transferred into a share premium account.

Q27: The amount of the nominal share capital that has been paid for by the company members is called

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Answer: Paid-up share capital.

Q28: Where a private company wishes to reduce its share capital, and is not restricted or prohibited from so doing in its articles, to be effective it must:
i) Pass an ordinary resolution to that effect.
ii) Pass a written resolution to that effect.
iii) Pass a special resolution to that effect.
iv) Have the resolution supported by a solvency statement

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Answer: iii and iv.

Q29: Which of the following is NOT a type of share of a company

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Answer: Special share.

Q30: When a charge is applied to a company’s asset, within which time period must this charge be registered with the Registrar of Companies

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Answer: Within 21 days of its creation.

Q31: Unless provision is made expressly to the contrary, and assuming the charges listed have been correctly registered, which of the following ranks highest in priority when a company is wound-up

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Answer: A fixed charge.

Q32: The necessary requirement to dismiss a director before the expiry of his/her term in office involves the moving of which of the following resolutions

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Answer: An ordinary resolution with 28 days’ notice.

Q33: The register of directors is a document that may be inspected by which of the following

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Answer: Any interested person whether he/she has an interest in the company or not.

Q34: Which of the following is NOT a type of company director

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Answer: A supreme director.

Q35: In relation to Public limited Companies, the minimum number of directors required is

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Answer: Two.

Q36: The minimum age of a director, as required in the Companies Act 2006, s. 157, is

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Answer: 16

Q37: Which of the following may make a claim of unfair prejudice

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Answer: Any shareholder.

Q38: The CA 2006 introduced protections for minority shareholders where a shareholder may initiate proceedings against a director on the company’s behalf, (a derivative claim). In which of the following circumstances will a court permit a claim to proceed

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Answer: Where a cause of action arises from a breach of trust by a director of the company.

Q39: Which of the following is NOT protected by copyright

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Answer: Ideas and thoughts.

Q40: In cases of literary and dramatic works, for how long will copyright exist

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Answer: 70 years after the end of the calendar year of the death of the person who created it.

Q41: Protection under the Registered Design Act 1949 exists for a period of how many years

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Answer: 25 years.

Q42: In relation to the sporting goods manufacturer ‘Nike,’ its ‘swoosh’ is an example of

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Answer: Trade mark.

Q43: Which of the following will enable a patent to be applied for

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Answer: A new invention (such as a vacuum cleaner).

Q44: One of the following is the correct definition of marketing used by the Chartered Institute of Marketing and the others are fundamentally flawed. Which one is correct

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Answer: Marketing is the activity, set of institutions, and processes for creating, communicating, delivering, and exchanging offerings that have value for customers, clients, partners, and society at large.

Q45: A builder who has a full order book during a period of economic prosperity and leaves his potential customers waiting for work to be completed is most likely showing what type of business orientation

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Answer: Production orientation

Q46: How old are the principles and practices of marketing? Which of the following represent the oldest instances of individuals or organizations practising the principles of marketing

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Answer: The traders of ancient Greece.

Q47: Is marketing an art or a science? Marketing differs from the natural sciences because

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Answer: Marketing tends to deal with open systems whereas the natural sciences tend to deal with closed systems.

Q48: Positivist approaches to marketing are essentially based on which of the following approaches

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Answer: Methodologies which are robust and repeatable.

Q49: During the late 1990s, retailers of organic vegetables in the UK were unable to be truly market oriented because

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Answer: There was poor and intermittent supply of organic produce.

Q50: Peter Drucker noted the relationship between selling and marketing in the following terms

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Answer: The aim of marketing is to make selling superfluous.

Q51: Which of the following statements is NOT true about the concept of a customer

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Answer: A customer and consumer are always the same thing – the terms are completely interchangeable.

Q52: Which of the following is the best definition of value

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Answer: The best ratio of benefits to costs available to buyers.

Q53: Which of the following is NOT usually defined as an element of the marketing mix

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Answer: Profits

Q54: Which of the following is true about marketing planning at the bottom of a business cycle

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Answer: If it is fairly certain that the bottom of the cycle has been reached, this is the time to begin increasing investment.

Q55: A value chain in marketing is

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Answer: a process by which goods gain value as they pass through different levels of intermediaries.

Q56: In general, concern with the ecological environment is most closely associated with economies characterized by

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Answer: high levels of GDP per capita.

Q57: The creation of a marketing department

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Answer: can result in a firm as a whole having a reduced level of marketing orientation.

Q58: Which of the following is least likely to be associated with a firm’s macro-environment

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Answer: A new staff incentive scheme

Q59: Which of the following represents the most directly important reason why firms monitor their demographic environment

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Answer: To predict the size of market segments

Q60: In a flexible firm, “core workers” are

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Answer: Functionally flexible

Q61: Which of the following is NOT part of an organization’s micro-environment

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Answer: Government legislation

Q62: Which of the following is an element of an organization’s internal environment

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Answer: Employees

Q63: A method of comparing the internal capabilities of an organization with the demands and challenges of its external environment is referred to as

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Answer: SWOT analysis

Q64: For a national supermarket chain, local community groups, government agencies and campaigning pressure groups collectively represent___of the supermarket

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Answer: stakeholders

Q65: A commercial company that promotes its public spirited attitude, for example by supporting a plastics recycling scheme, is most likely to be

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Answer: Seeking to combine social benefits with business profitability.

Q66: Many observers have noted an association between a nation’s GDP and the level of its citizens’ concern with issues of ecological and corporate responsibility. In general, it is suggested that a high level of concern with these issues is associated with

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Answer: A high level of GDP per capita.

Q67: What do you understand by the term ‘ethics’ in a business context

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Answer: Culturally conditioned agreement on what constitutes right and wrong.

Q68: Which of the following provides the best definition of the concept of ‘Green marketing’

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Answer: It cannot be precisely defined, but places emphasis on ecological responsibility in all of a company’s activities.

Q69: Companies should have responsibilities to vulnerable customers. Which of the following provides the widest definition of a vulnerable customer

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Answer: Any individual over whom a company has a high level of power which leaves the individual unable to effectively apply their own judgment.

Q70: For a business organisation to be considered a ‘good citizen’, the most important thing it must do is

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Answer: Ensure that the activities of the whole company at all times meet the expectations of all stakeholders.

Q71: Taken to its extreme, ‘green’ attitudes to consumption by tourists would imply that individuals

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Answer: Stay at home.

Q72: A truck company promotes the fact it is using fuel in its trucks derived from agricultural crops, rather than conventional fossil fuels. This is evidence that

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Answer: It can be very difficult to understand impacts of decisions to adopt apparently environmentally friendly practices.

Q73: Different countries and cultures have taken differing attitudes to the concept of ecological responsibility. In general, this has resulted in

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Answer: Transfer of production from developed to developing countries.

Q74: For most people, the purchase of cheese for daily use can be described as a

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Answer: Routine rebuy

Q75: Which of the following statements best describes the concept of involvement in the context of buyer behaviour

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Answer: The potential impact of a product on an individual’s self-identity.

Q76: Buying decisions generally follow a pattern of overlapping stages. Which of the following best describes the typical stages of the buying process

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Answer: Need recognition> Information search > Evaluation > Decision > Post purchase evaluation

Q77: Needs differ from wants because

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Answer: Wants are a socialized manifestation of underlying needs

Q78: Which of the following levels of Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs is most likely to be associated with consumers’ purchase of goods which appeal to their inner sense of peace of mind (e.g. art classes)

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Answer: Self-actualization

Q79: An individual is considering buying a new microwave cooker and is faced with the possibility of several models. Which of the following describes the widest range of microwave cookers which the buyer considers in some form

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Answer: The choice set

Q80: A company uses the celebrity Jamie Oliver to endorse its range of healthy snack foods. This endorsement is likely to be particularly effective if Jamie Oliver is seen by large numbers of the company’s target market as

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Answer: A secondary reference group

Q81: Which of the following consumer responses is LEAST likely to overcome cognitive dissonance experienced by a consumer who is dissatisfied with their purchase

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Answer: Seeing the product in a different light so that we emphasize the bad aspects of a product.

Q82: Which of the following labels is NOT associated with a role in a buying Decision Making Unit

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Answer: Supplier

Q83: A secretary who answers calls for a company buyer may be taking on which role within the company’s decision making unit

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Answer: Gatekeeper

Q84: In respect of a pub chain seeking to learn more about trends in dining out, the following are all examples of___: Financial Times industry sector surveys; other pub chains’ annual reports, and reports published by trade bodies re[presenting the licensed pub trade

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Answer: secondary data

Q85: Which of the following indicators is most likely to be an effective predictor of UK demand for new commercial catering equipment in one year’s time

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Answer: Number of people attending professional catering equipment exhibitions

Q86: Factors that are crucial to the effectiveness of a company’s marketing intelligence systems are listed below. Which factor is incorrect

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Answer: Appointment of a full time marketing research manager

Q87: Benchmarking is a type of research which

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Answer: compares a company’s performance with standards set by selected other organizations.

Q88: ‘Mystery Shopper’ surveys can best be described as a form of

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Answer: Observational research

Q89: Why are non-responses a particularly important problem for companies’ questionnaire surveys

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Answer: A company cannot tell whether respondents have the same views as non-respondents, therefore the analysis may be biased.

Q90: Participants are invited to join focus groups based on which criteria

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Answer: Ability to contribute to an understanding of an issue.

Q91: Which of the following statements concerning marketing research is incorrect

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Answer: Qualitative techniques generally provide a broad representation of the population’s behaviour.

Q92: Which of the following is not an element of a Marketing Information System

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Answer: Production monitoring system

Q93: Market___is the process of identifying groups of customers with basically similar wants, needs, preferences or buying behaviours

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Answer: Segmentation

Q94: Which of the following is NOT a recognized basis for segmenting markets

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Answer: Competitive position

Q95: Which of the following statements about segmentation by age is correct

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Answer: People may exhibit characteristics of the age they feel rather than their biological age.

Q96: Marketers still refer to the A/B/C1/C2/D/E basis of classification because

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Answer: it is simple and there is shared understanding about the general characteristics of the people in each group.

Q97: For marketers, geodemographic classification is essentially based on an assumption that

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Answer: where you live affects the things you buy.

Q98: Which of the following is NOT a criterion used for segmenting consumer markets

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Answer: Size of the company

Q99: Positioning of a product is based on

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Answer: All of the above

Q100: Positioning refers to the standing in the market place of one product in relation to other competing products. The whole of the marketing mix is used to position a product

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Answer: MOSAIC