Legal Aspects of Business Set 3

QN81: Which remedy allows the non-breaching party to cancel the contract and be released from any further obligations?
a) Rescission
b) Specific performance
c) Restitution
d) Mitigation

Answer

Answer: a) Rescission

QN82: What does the doctrine of mitigation of damages require the non-breaching party to do?
a) Seek alternative remedies for the breach
b) File a lawsuit against the breaching party
c) Take reasonable steps to minimize the damages caused by the breach
d) Request punitive damages in addition to compensatory damages

Answer

Answer: c) Take reasonable steps to minimize the damages caused by the breach

QN83: What is a quasi contract?
a) A contract that is voidable by either party
b) A contract that is formed by the explicit agreement of the parties
c) A contract that is implied by law to prevent unjust enrichment
d) A contract that is formed through electronic means

Answer

Answer: c) A contract that is implied by law to prevent unjust enrichment

QN84: What is the main characteristic of a quasi contract?
a) It requires mutual assent between the parties
b) It is based on a written agreement
c) It arises in the absence of an actual contract
d) It is enforceable without consideration

Answer

Answer: c) It arises in the absence of an actual contract

QN85: Which of the following is not a characteristic of a pledge contract?
a) Transfer of possession
b) Security for a debt or obligation
c) Ownership transfer of the pledged item
d) Return of the pledged item upon fulfillment of the debt

Answer

Answer: c) Ownership transfer of the pledged item

QN86: In a bailment contract, the person delivering the goods is known as the:
a) Bailor
b) Bailee
c) Pledgee
d) Guarantor

Answer

Answer: a) Bailor

QN87: A bailment without a specific reward or compensation is categorized as:
a) Gratuitous bailment
b) Mutual bailment
c) Ordinary bailment
d) Contractual bailment

Answer

Answer: a) Gratuitous bailment

QN88: Which of the following is not a type of special bailment?
a) Bailment for the sole benefit of the bailor
b) Bailment for the sole benefit of the bailee
c) Bailment for hire
d) Bailment for legal purposes

Answer

Answer: d) Bailment for legal purposes

QN89: Which of the following is true regarding the liability of a bailee in a pledge contract?
a) The bailee is liable only for gross negligence
b) The bailee is not liable for any loss or damage
c) The bailee is liable for ordinary negligence
d) The bailee is liable only if the goods are destroyed

Answer

Answer: a) The bailee is liable only for gross negligence

QN90: In an indemnity contract, the indemnifier promises to:
a) Pay a specific amount of money to the indemnity holder
b) Provide goods or services as compensation
c) Take responsibility for the actions of the indemnity holder
d) Protect the indemnity holder from loss or damage

Answer

Answer: d) Protect the indemnity holder from loss or damage

QN91: A guarantee contract involves:
a) A promise to compensate for any loss or default of a third party
b) Mutual exchange of goods or services
c) Transfer of ownership of an asset
d) Sharing profits and losses between parties

Answer

Answer: a) A promise to compensate for any loss or default of a third party

QN92: Which of the following is not a type of guarantee contract?
a) Specific guarantee
b) Continuing guarantee
c) Corporate guarantee
d) Absolute guarantee

Answer

Answer: c) Corporate guarantee

QN93: The liability of a surety in a guarantee contract is:
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Joint
d) Conditional

Answer

Answer: b) Secondary

QN94: Under an indemnity contract, the indemnifier’s liability:
a) Ceases upon the occurrence of the specified event
b) Extends indefinitely until the indemnity holder is compensated
c) Depends on the value of the indemnity
d) Is limited to a specific period of time

Answer

Answer: b) Extends indefinitely until the indemnity holder is compensated

QN95: Which of the following statements best describes the nature of an agency contract?
a) It involves a legal relationship where one person acts on behalf of another person.
b) It is a contract between two business entities for the sale of goods or services.
c) It is an agreement where both parties share profits and losses equally.
d) It is a contract that transfers ownership of assets from one person to another.

Answer

Answer: a) It involves a legal relationship where one person acts on behalf of another person.

QN96: The person who acts on behalf of another person in an agency relationship is known as the:
a) Principal
b) Agent
c) Third party
d) Contractor

Answer

Answer: b) Agent

QN97: Which of the following is a characteristic of an agency relationship?
a) Sharing of profits and losses
b) Transfer of ownership of assets
c) Legal authority to make binding contracts
d) Joint management of a business enterprise

Answer

Answer: c) Legal authority to make binding contracts

QN98: In an agency contract, the principal is liable for the acts of the agent performed within the scope of:
a) Actual authority
b) Apparent authority
c) Implied authority
d) Ostensible authority

Answer

Answer: a) Actual authority

QN99: The termination of an agency relationship can occur through:
a) Mutual agreement between the principal and agent
b) Expiration of a specified period or completion of a specific task
c) Revocation of authority by the principal
d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: d) All of the above

QN100: Which of the following is not a method of creating an agency relationship?
a) Express agreement
b) Implied agreement
c) Ratification
d) Joint ownership

Answer

Answer: d) Joint ownership

QN101: An agency relationship is created by an express agreement when:
a) Both parties have a written contract specifying their roles and responsibilities.
b) Both parties verbally agree to act as agent and principal.
c) One party unilaterally appoints the other party as their agent.
d) Both parties engage in a joint venture.

Answer

Answer: a) Both parties have a written contract specifying their roles and responsibilities.

QN102: Implied agency can be created based on:
a) The conduct of the parties
b) The title or position of the agent
c) Customary trade practices
d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: d) All of the above

QN103: Ratification is a method of creating agency when:
a) The principal approves and accepts the agent’s unauthorized actions.
b) The agent acquires ownership rights over the principal’s assets.
c) The principal grants the agent power of attorney.
d) The agent acts beyond the scope of authority granted by the principal.

Answer

Answer: a) The principal approves and accepts the agent’s unauthorized actions.

QN104: Which of the following is not a type of agent based on the extent of their authority?
a) General agent
b) Special agent
c) Universal agent
d) Gratuitous agent

Answer

Answer: d) Gratuitous agent

QN105: Which of the following is not a duty of a principal towards an agent?
a) Duty to compensate the agent for their services
b) Duty to reimburse the agent for expenses incurred
c) Duty to provide the agent with necessary information and instructions
d) Duty to act in the best interest of the agent’s personal goals

Answer

Answer: d) Duty to act in the best interest of the agent’s personal goals

QN106: The termination of an agency relationship due to the death of either the principal or the agent is known as:
a) Expiry of the agency
b) Termination by mutual agreement
c) Termination by operation of law
d) Termination by notice

Answer

Answer: c) Termination by operation of law

QN107: Which of the following is true regarding the liability of the principal for the acts of an agent?
a) The principal is always personally liable for the acts of the agent.
b) The principal is not liable if the agent acted without authority.
c) The principal is only liable if the agent’s acts result in profit.
d) The principal’s liability is limited to the amount of commission paid to the agent.

Answer

Answer: b) The principal is not liable if the agent acted without authority.

QN108: A sale is distinguished from an agreement to sell based on:
a) The transfer of ownership of goods
b) The price at which goods are sold
c) The method of payment used
d) The delivery of goods to the buyer

Answer

Answer: a) The transfer of ownership of goods

QN109: In a hire-purchase agreement, the ownership of the goods:
a) Remains with the seller until the buyer makes all the payments
b) Is immediately transferred to the buyer upon signing the agreement
c) Is shared between the buyer and the seller during the hire period
d) Cannot be transferred under any circumstances

Answer

Answer: a) Remains with the seller until the buyer makes all the payments

QN110: Pledge is a special contract that involves:
a) Transfer of ownership of goods as security for a debt
b) Lease of goods for a specific period of time
c) Sale of goods with the option to repurchase
d) Granting temporary possession of goods as security for a debt

Answer

Answer: d) Granting temporary possession of goods as security for a debt

QN111: Which of the following is an example of a movable property that can be mortgaged?
a) Land and buildings
b) Intellectual property rights
c) Shares and debentures
d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: c) Shares and debentures

QN112: Hypothecation is a type of security where:
a) The borrower transfers ownership of the asset to the lender
b) The borrower pledges movable property as security for a loan
c) The lender leases the asset to the borrower
d) The lender sells the asset to the borrower with the option to repurchase

Answer

Answer: b) The borrower pledges movable property as security for a loan

QN113: Lease is a contract where:
a) Ownership of goods is transferred from lessor to lessee permanently
b) Goods are rented out for short durations only
c) The lessor grants the lessee the right to use goods for a specified period
d) The lessee assumes responsibility for any damages to the goods

Answer

Answer: c) The lessor grants the lessee the right to use goods for a specified period

QN114: Which of the following is not a type of goods under the Sale of Goods Act?
a) Existing goods
b)
Future goods
c) Specific goods
d) Counterfeit goods

Answer

Answer: d) Counterfeit goods

QN115: When does the property in goods pass from the seller to the buyer in a sale contract?
a) At the time of payment
b) At the time of delivery
c) At the time of agreement
d) At the time of invoicing

Answer

Answer: b) At the time of delivery

QN116: In the case of specific goods, the property passes when:
a) The buyer pays for the goods
b) The seller delivers the goods to the buyer
c) The goods are identified and set apart from the seller’s stock
d) The buyer signs the purchase agreement

Answer

Answer: c) The goods are identified and set apart from the seller’s stock

QN117: In the case of unascertained goods, the property passes when:
a) The goods are manufactured
b) The goods are shipped
c) The goods are paid for
d) The goods are identified and appropriated

Answer

Answer: d) The goods are identified and appropriated

QN118: Risk follows the property means that:
a) The buyer bears the risk of loss or damage to the goods
b) The seller is responsible for any loss or damage to the goods
c) The risk is evenly shared between the buyer and seller
d) The risk is transferred to a third party

Answer

Answer: a) The buyer bears the risk of loss or damage to the goods

QN119: When does the property pass in a hire-purchase agreement?
a) At the time of signing the agreement
b) At the time of making the first payment
c) At the time of delivery of goods
d) At the time of final installment payment

Answer

Answer: d) At the time of final installment payment

QN120: Which of the following statements best defines a condition in a contract of sale?
a) It is a minor term that is not essential to the main purpose of the contract.
b) It is a fundamental term that goes to the root of the contract.
c) It is a statement of opinion or belief by the seller.
d) It is a term that can be waived or modified by both parties.

Answer

Answer: b) It is a fundamental term that goes to the root of the contract.

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