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Interview MCQ Set 1

1. Static load is defined as the load acting on the bearing when shaft is _____
a) Stationary
b) Rotating at rpm<10
c) Rotating at rpm<5
d) None of the listed

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] As name suggests, static load means load during stationary position of the shaft.

2. A total permanent deformation of 0.0001 of the ball diameter is taken for considering static load capacity of the shaft.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Permissible magnitude of deformation is set as per the experimental data.

3. Stribeck equation gives dynamic load capacity of the bearing.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] It gives static load capacity of the bearing.

4. Which of the following is expression for stribeck equation?(Number of balls=z)?
a) C=kd²z/5
b) C=kd²z/15
c) C=kd²z/10
d) None of the listed

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] C=(1/5)zP and P=kd².

5. The life of an individual ball bearing is the time period for which it works without any signs of failures.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] It is measured by number of revolutions and not by time.

6. For majority of bearings, actual life is considerably greater than rated life.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Stastically it has been proved that life which 50% of a group of bearings will exceed is approximately five times rating of rated life.

7. The dynamic load carrying capacity of a bearing is defined as the radial load in radial bearings that can be carried for a minimum life of 1000 revolutions.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] It is for 1 million revolutions.

8. In the expression of dynamic load capacity P=XVF(r) + YF(a), V stands for ?
a) Race rotation factor
b) Radial factor
c) Thrust factor
d) None of the listed

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] It represent race rotation factor which depends upon whether inner race is rotating or outer race.

9. Calculate the bearing life if expected life for 90% bearings is 9000h and shaft is rotating at 1500rpm.
a) 850 million rev
b) 810 million rev
c) 810 h
d) 850h

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] L=60x1500x9000/10⁶ million rev.

10. The bearing is subjected to a radial load of 4000N. Expected life for 90% bearings is 9000h and shaft is rotating at 1500rpm. Calculate the dynamic load capacity.
a) 42.21kN
b) 37.29kN
c) 26.33kN
d) 35.22kN

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] C=4000x(810)⅓.

11. A rolling contact bearing is specified as X307. Calculate the bearing diameter.
a) 35mm
b) 28mm
c) 21mm
d) 7mm

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Diameter=5 times the last two digits.

12. A rolling contact bearing is specified as X307. Determine the series.
a) Extra light series
b) Light series
c) Medium series
d) Heavy series

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] 1- Extra light series,2-Light series,3-Medium series,4-heavy series.

13. Needles bearing consist of rollers of small diameter and very small length.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Also called as quill bearings, they consist of small diameter and comparatively longer b=rollers.

14. Extreme pressure causes ______ wear in the bearing parts.
a) Abrasive
b) Corrosive
c) Pitting
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Extreme pressure elements in EP additives are added in lubricating oils.

15. Scoring is a ________ phenomenon.
a) Stick-slip
b) Fracture
c) Fatigue
d) In-out

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Alternative welding and shearing takes place.

Interview MCQ Set 2

1. Syphilis is caused by which of the following organism?
a) Treponema pallidum
b) Treponema pertenue
c) Treponema endemicum
d) Treponema carateum

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:]Treponema pallidum causes syphilis disease in humans which is a venereal or congenital disease in humans.

2. Which of the following terms stand for damage to the spinal cord during tertiary stage of syphilis?
a) Lymphadenopathy
b) Malaise
c) Paresis
d) Tabes dorsalis

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Tabes dorsalis results from damage to the spinal cord: the patient becomes uncoordinated and has loss of reflexes, uncontrollable urinations, loss of perception, and sensation, blindness and loss of hearing.

3. Which of the following is a specific test for detecting antitreponemal antibodies?
a) VDRL
b) RPR
c) TPH
d) Widal Test

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Two widely used specific tests are the fluorescent treponemal antibody (FTA) and the T. pallidum hemagglutination (TPH) test.

4. In which body part does the C. jejuni causes infection?
a) mouth
b) stomach
c) small and large intestine
d) limbs

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] C. jejuni causes acute exudative and hemorrhagic inflammation of the wall of the small and large intestine.

5. Which disease is caused by P. pseudomallei organism?
a) melioidosis
b) diarrhea
c) gastroenteritis
d) typhoid

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] P. pseudomallei are a tropical and subtropical soil organism that can cause a disease known as melioidosis in a large variety of animals and occasionally in humans.

6. Which of the following antibiotics is most effective?
a) streptomycin
b) tetracycline
c) gentamicin
d) ampicillin

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] P.aeruginosa is resistant to many common antibiotics, although gentamicin and carbenicillin often are effective.

7. Pontiac fever is a more severe disease than Legionnaires’ disease.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Pontiac fever is a less severe disease characterized by fever, chills, headache, dry cough and muscle pain and is self limiting and nonfatal.

8. Which of the following microorganism occurs in swine?
a) Brucella melitensis
b) Brucella abortus
c) Brucella suis
d) Legionella pneumophila

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Brucella suis occurs in swine. They are mainly parasites and pathogens of domestic animals.

9. Which drug is used for treatment of brucellosis in humans?
a) Erythromycin
b) Tetracycline
c) Carbenicillin
d) Gentamicin

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Tetracycline is the drug of choice for treatment of brucellosis in humans. No vaccine is available for human immunization.

10. The organism causing whooping cough can grow on ordinary culture media.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The organism will not grow on ordinary culture media because such media contain toxic substances such as unsaturated fatty acids.Starch must be added to absorb these toxic substances.

11. Which of the following capsular polysaccharides is used for preparing vaccine against meningococcal meningitis?
a) serovar A
b) serovar B
c) serovar C
d) serovar A and C

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] A vaccine is available for epidemic control of meningococcal meningitis and consists of the purified capsular polysaccharides of serovars A and C; the serovar B polysaccharide appears not to be highly immunogenic.

12. Thayer-Martin medium is used for isolation of organism for which disease?
a) diphtheria
b) meningococcal meningitis
c) gonorrhea
d) gastroenteritis

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] In the laboratory diagnosis of gonorrhea, isolation is done on Thayer-Martin medium, a rich blood-containing agar to which are added antibiotics to suppress the growth of other bacteria.

13. Which of the following strains causes acute gastroenteritis in newborns and infants?
a) Enteropathogenic strains
b) Enteroinvasive strains
c) Enterotoxigenic strains
d) Both enteropathogenic and enterotoxigenic

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Enteropathogenic strains colonize the jejunum and upper ileum of the small intestine and cause acute gastroenteritis in newborns and in infants.

Interview MCQ Set 3

1. In the classification of bacteria according to shape,which among the following refer to cuboidal arrangement of bacterial cells?
a) Tetrads
b) Staphylococci
c) Sarcinae
d) Streptococci

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] In Sarcinae group of bacteria, the cells divide in three planes, in a regular pattern, producing a cuboidal arrangement of cells. In Staphylococci, cells divide in three planes, in an irregular pattern,producing bunches of cocci.

2. Which group of bacteria among the following have the largest area of contact?
a) Palisades
b) Trichomes
c) Streptobacilli
d) Diplobacilli

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Trichomes are similar to chains but have a much larger area of contact between the adjacent cells whereas in palisade arrangement, the cells are ind side by side at angles to one another.

3. Which among the following are “Spirochetes”?
a) Spirillum volutans
b) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
c) Streptomyces sp.
d) Treponema pallidum

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Spirochetes are flexible and can twist and contort their shape, whereas spirilla are relatively rigid. Treponema palldium belong to the spirochetes group and Spirillum volutans belong to the spirilla group.

4. What is the approximate size of the bacterial cell?
a) 2mm in diameter
b) 1mm in diameter
c) 2 micrometer in diameter
d) 0.5 to 1.0 micrometer in diameter

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Bacteria are very small, most being approximately 0.5 to 1.0 micrometer in diameter.This is the reason why they cannot be seen by naked eyes and can be observed under the microscope.

5. When rod shaped bacteria appears in pairs,it is known as?
a) Diplobacilli
b) Streptobacilli
c) Diplococci
d) Staphylococci

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] When bacilli occur in pairs, it is known as diplobacilli but when they form chains it is known as streptobacilli. Cocci are spherical shaped bacteria and not rod shaped.

6. Surface area/volume ratio of bacteria is exceedingly low compared to the same ratio for larger organisms of similar shape.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Due to the small size of microorganisms, the surface area/volume ratio of bacteria is exceedingly high compared to the same ratio for larger organisms of similar shape. A relatively large surface through which nutrients can enter ( or waste products leave) compared to a small volume of cell substance to be nourished accounts for the unusually high rate of growth and metabolism of bacteria.

7. Bacteria with less than a complete twist or comma shaped is known as?
a) spirilla
b) helical
c) vibrioid
d) spirochetes

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Bacteria with less than a complete twist or turn have a vibrioid shape,whereas those with one or more complete turns have a helical shape. Spirilla are rigid helical bacteria whereas spirochetes are highly flexible.

8. Which of the following are functions of stalk?
a) nutrient absorption
b) motility
c) attachment of the cells to surfaces
d) human infection

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Stalk are mainly nonliving ribbonlike or tubular appendages that are excreted by the cell. These stalks aid in attachment of the cells to surfaces.

Interview MCQ Set 4

1. Bacteria belonging to the family Bacteriodaceae uses which of the following compounds as electron acceptors?
a) oxygen
b) inorganic sulphur
c) nitrate
d) phosphate

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Bacteriodaceae do not respire anaerobically by using inorganic sulphur as electron acceptors; some do respire anaerobically with nitrate or fumarate.

2. The organic acids produced by bacteria belonging to the family Bacteriadaceae is identified by?
a) distillation
b) gas chromatography
c) spectrophotometer
d) ion-exchange chromatography

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The bacteria of Bacteriadaceae differ in the kinds of organic acid end products they produce.The organic acids are identified by means of a gas chromatograph.

3. Which of the following genus of bacteria do not have a fermentative type of metabolism?
a) Bacteroides
b) Fusobacterium
c) Wolinella
d) Selenomonas

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Wolinella do not have a fermentative type of metabolism.They respire anaerobically with hydrogen or formate as electron donors and fumarate or nitrate as electron acceptors.

4. Which of the following possess peritrichous flagella?
a) Bacteroides
b) Anaerovibrio
c) Succinimonas
d) Fusobacterium

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Bacteroides are straight-rod shaped.They are nonmotile or motile by means of peritrichous flagella.

5. Propionate and acetate are produced as an end product of fermentation in which of the following bacteria?
a) Fusobacterium
b) Succinimonas
c) Wolinella
d) Anaerovibrio

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Anaerovibrio are slightly curved rod shaped bacteria which are motile by means of a single polar flagellum.They produce propionate and acetate as organic acid end products of fermentation process.

6. Desulphuromonas can respire with elemental sulphur as the electron acceptor.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Desuphuromonas is one genus of sulphur reducing bacteria that can respire with elemental sulphur as the electron acceptor.The other genera cannot use sulphur but can use sulphate,thiosulphate, or other oxidized sulphur compounds.

7. Veillonellaceae, is the family of bacteria consisting of motile cocci.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Veillonellaceae consists of nonmotile cocci, typically occurring in pairs, often with the adjacent sides flattened.

8. The violet pigement, violacein, is produced by which of the following bacterial genus?
a) Zymomonas
b) Gardnerella
c) Streptobacillus
d) Chromobacterium

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Chromobacterium are motile, rod-shaped organisms having the unusual property of forming violet colonies, due to a pigment called violacein.They can cause infections in humans and other mammals.

Interview MCQ Set 5

1. Glycolysis can occur in ___________
a) aerobic cells
b) anaerobic cells
c) both aerobic and anaerobic cells
d) neither aerobic and anaerobic cells

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Glycolysis does not require the presence of oxygen and therefore can occur in both aerobic and anaerobic cells.In anaerobic cells glucose is degraded into fermentation products and in aerobic cells glucose is degraded into carbon dioxide and water.

2. The step where glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate is oxidized is a substrate-level phosphorylation.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The step where glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate is oxidized to 1,3-Biphosphoglycerate is an oxidative-level phosphorylation where a pair of electrons (two hydrogen atoms) is removed.

3. Xylulose-5-phosphate is an intermediate in ___________
a) Glycolysis
b) Pentose Phosphate Pathway
c) Entner-Doudoroff Pathway
d) Fermentation

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Epimerization of ribulose-6-phosphate yields xylulose-5-phosphate and ribulose-5-phosphate in Pentose-phosphate pathway.These two compounds are the starting point for a series of transketolase and transaldolase reactions.

4. How many molecules of glucose-6-phosphate are regenerated in pentose-phosphate pathway?
a) 3
b) 2
c) 5
d) 4

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] From 6 molecules of ribulose-5-phosphate, 5 molecules of glucose-6-phosphate are again regenerated.

5. Entner-Doudoroff pathway takes place only in procaryotes.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Entner-Doudoroff pathway is found both in aerobic and anaerobic procaryotes, particularly among Gram-negative bacteria but not in eukaryotes.

6. Which of the following are propionic acid bacteria?
a) Streptococcus
b) Acetobacter
c) Clostridium
d) Veillonella

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Veillonella is a propionic acid bacteria which produces propionic acid, acetic acid and carbon dioxide as fermentation products.

7. What is the other name of glycolysis?
a) PPP cycle
b) TCA cycle
c) C4 cycle
d) EMP pathway

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] EMP is named after the scientists that proposed the pathway, and they are Embden, Meyerhof, Parnas. It involves the conversion of Glucose into pyruvic acid.

8. How many ATPs are paid back during Pentose phosphate Pathway?
a) 1
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] One ATP is paid back for converting glucose into glucose-6-phosphate in the presence of hexokinase enzyme.

9. Stickland reaction is the alternative name for ________
a) Lactic acid fermentation
b) Alcoholic fermentation
c) Mixed acid fermentation
d) Amino acid fermentation

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Amino acid fermentation reaction is also known as Stickland reaction alternatively.

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