Q1: The committees which promote workers’ participation in management are usually established only at the
Answer: All of these—corporate levelAnswer
plant level
shop-floor level
Q2: Joint management councils are normally formed in an organization at a level which is
Answer: below the board but above the shop-floor levelAnswer
Q3: Which of the following is not usually an example of indirect participation by the employees in participative management
Answer: Suggestion-box schemeAnswer
Q4: Which of the following not an example of direct participation by the employees in participative management
Answer: A joint management council memberAnswer
Q5: Which of the following is not a characteristic of the workers participation in management
Answer: One-time activity in the life of the organizationAnswer
Q6: Employee empowerment in general means
Answer: increased job autonomy for the subordinatesAnswer
Q7: Which of the following activities is not required as part of the employee empowerment process
Answer: None of these—Transfer of authorityAnswer
Assignment of responsibility
Establishment of accountability
Q8: Which of the following is not usually a characteristic of employee promotion
Answer: decrease in authority and responsibilityAnswer
Q9: Find the odd man out on the basis of information about kinds of promotion
Answer: None of these—horizontal promotionAnswer
vertical promotion
open system of promotion
Q10: Which of the following is not a reason for demotion
Answer: Absence of promotional opportunitiesAnswer
Q11: Which of the following is not an example of transfer
Answer: Displacement transferAnswer
Q12: The transfer which facilitate the employees in acquiring a wide variety of skills is known as
Answer: Versatility transferAnswer
Q13: Which of the following is not a reason for the involuntary separation of employees
Answer: None of these—Employee health problemsAnswer
Employee indiscipline problems
Organizational problems
Q14: Which of the following makes the employees ineligible for provident and gratuity benefits
Answer: DischargeAnswer
Q15: Which of the following is usually not an objective of industrial relations
Answer: None of these—ConnectednessAnswer
Collective wisdom
Conflict prevention
Q16: Identify the major actor of industrial relations from the following
Answer: All of these—EmployersAnswer
Unions
Government
Q17: That the authority rests solely with the management with no right to anyone to challenge it is the basis of the
Answer: Unitary approachAnswer
Q18: The balance of power is not vested with any one group; rather, it is maintained between the parties to the industrial relations.” This is the essence of the
Answer: Pluralist approachAnswer
Q19: That the behaviour, actions and role of the individuals are primarily shaped by the cultures of the society is the basic assumption in the
Answer: System approachAnswer
Q20: Which of the following approaches assumes that the understanding of industrial relations requires an understanding of the capitalized society
Answer: Marxist approachAnswer
Q21: The utility of non-violence as the means of conflict resolution is the core principle of the
Answer: Gandhian approachAnswer
Q22: “Organizations are made up of people and the success of management lies in its dealings with these people.” This is the fundamental of the
Answer: Human relations approachAnswer
Q23: Which of the following approaches assumes that voluntary negotiations between employers and employees are a means of settling disputes
Answer: Giri approachAnswer
Q24: Which of the following approaches insists on investigating the underlying trends and patterns in the cause and effect of industrial disputes
Answer: Industrial sociology approachAnswer
Q25: Productivity bargaining is considered as a classic example of the
Answer: Oxford school approachAnswer
Q26: Imposing discipline in the form of rules and regulations is an inalienable right of the
Answer: managementAnswer
Q27: Which of the following is an objective of employee discipline
Answer: All of these—goal accomplishmentAnswer
changing employee behaviour
promoting industrial relations
Q28: Getting the willing cooperation of the employees in voluntarily observing the discipline code of an organization is the essence of
Answer: positive disciplineAnswer
Q29: The threat of punishment as a key to imposing discipline is the basis of
Answer: negative disciplineAnswer
Q30: Adopting a step-by-step approach in dealing with indiscipline problems is the fundamental principle of
Answer: progressive disciplineAnswer
Q31: Which of the following is not a disciplinary action against employees
Answer: incrementsAnswer
Q32: Which of the following statements indicates a good disciplinary system
Answer: An employee must be reprimanded in private.Answer
Q33: Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Hot Stove Rule of Discipline
Answer: secrecyAnswer
Q34: The presence of grievances among employees may cause
Answer: all of these—indiscipline among themAnswer
strain on the labour’ management relations
a decline in the employees’ performance and productivity
Q35: Which of the following techniques permits the grievant (complainant) to remain anonymous
Answer: The gripe-box systemAnswer
Q36: The management should redress only those grievances that are
Answer: real or imaginaryAnswer
Q37: In which of the following methods are grievances ascertained at the time of employees quitting the organization
Answer: The exit interview methodAnswer
Q38: Which of the following acts has a direct relevance for grievance handling practices
Answer: All of these—The Industrial Employment (Standing Order) Act, 1946Answer
The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
The Factories Act, 1948
Q39: Which of the following is not a grievance concerned with supervision
Answer: Violation and/or non-fulfilment of the terms of collective bargaining agreementsAnswer
Q40: When workers are encouraged to meet the relevant manager in his office and to share their opinions, it is called
Answer: the open-door policyAnswer
Q41: Find the odd man out among the following fundamental principles governing any grievance procedure
Answer: Settlement in favour of managementAnswer
Q42: Which of the following statements is not true about an industrial dispute
Answer: The dispute may be between employer and government.Answer
Q43: Which of the following is not a cause of industrial dispute
Answer: None of these—demand for pay and benefits hikeAnswer
demand for hygienic and safer working conditions
demand for better labour welfare
Q44: When employees resort to unauthorized strike in violation of the labour contract or agreements, it is called
Answer: wild-cat strikeAnswer
Q45: Which of the following is a specific form of protest organized with the intention to prevent or dissuade the non-striking employees from attending to their work during the strike period
Answer: picketingAnswer
Q46: The strike organized to express solidarity with the striking employees in the same organization, industry or region is called
Answer: sympathy strikeAnswer
Q47: Which of the following dispute settlers cannot make a binding decision
Answer: conciliatorAnswer
Q48: “One party gains at the expense of another” normally refers to which type of collective bargaining
Answer: distributive bargainingAnswer
Q49: Which of the following is not a characteristic of trade union
Answer: individual actionsAnswer
Q50: Which union is focused on making the skills of its members valuable and not easily replaceable in organizations
Answer: occupational unionAnswer
Q51: A union meant to protect the interests and rights of the non-manual employees is called a
Answer: brown-collar unionAnswer
Q52: Employees join unions to fulfil their ___needs
Answer: All of these—socialAnswer
esteem
economic
Q53: What should be the minimum number (of persons) required to register a trade union
Answer: sevenAnswer
Q54: Which of the following statements is not true about an HR audit
Answer: It is a statutory requirement for an organization.Answer
Q55: Which of the following pieces of information is normally not considered for HR audit
Answer: None of these—job description and job specification statementsAnswer
hiring policies, practices and procedures
details about exit and other interviews
Q56: The HR audit needs to be done at ___levels of the organization
Answer: threeAnswer
Q57: When the efficiency of the HR activity is measured in terms of the organizational productivity and cost, it is called the ___approach
Answer: internalAnswer
Q58: Which of the following conditions is essential for an effective HR audit
Answer: All of these—top management’s commitmentAnswer
clarity in HR audit objectives
regularity and continuity
Q59: The automation of attendance keeping, payroll preparation and applicant tracking are some of the activities carried out at the ___level
Answer: electronic data processingAnswer
Q60: The simulation of a situation is the uniqueness of the ___model
Answer: decision support systemAnswer
Q61: Which of the following is not an advantage of the Human Resource Information System
Answer: None of these—a reduction in labour costAnswer
the ability to manage voluminous data
better supervision and control over the human resources
Q62: Which of the following is not normally an essential condition for an effective HRIS
Answer: Changing the HR managerAnswer
Q63: Which of the following is/are the sub-system(s) of HRIS
Answer: All of these—Position control and budgeting systemAnswer
Compensation management system
Performance management system
Q64: When the cost incurred on recruiting, training and developing the employees is considered for determining the value of employees, it is called
Answer: the historical cost approachAnswer
Q65: The opportunity cost approach in human resource accounting was introduced by
Answer: Hekimian and JonesAnswer
Q66: The aggregate payment approach in human resource accounting was developed by
Answer: S. K. ChakrabortyAnswer
Q67: The value of human resources is the function of the average salary of the employees and their average employment tenure in the organization. This is the essence of the
Answer: aggregate payment modelAnswer
Q68: Fixing the value of an employee depending upon his productivity, promotability transferability and retainability is the core of the
Answer: stochastic reward valuation modelAnswer
Q69: A written statement of policies and principles that guides the behaviour of all employees is called
Answer: code of ethicsAnswer
Q70: An empirical inquiry into the actual rules or standards of a particular group is
Answer: descriptive justiceAnswer
Q71: The HR policy which is based on the philosophy of the utmost good for the greatest number of people is covered under the
Answer: utilitarian approachAnswer
Q72: Which of the following is not usually the objective of a code of ethics
Answer: to enhance the profits of the business continuouslyAnswer
Q73: Which of the following is not a core principle of the Society for Human Resource Management’s Code of Ethics
Answer: None of these—professional responsibilityAnswer
fairness and justice
professional development
Q74: Which of the following factors shapes the ethical behaviour of the members of an organization
Answer: All of these—The supervisor’s behaviourAnswer
organizational culture
code of ethics
Q75: Transformational change in an organization refers to
Answer: complete change in almost all aspects of the organizationAnswer
Q76: Which of the following is normally the cause of organizational change
Answer: All of these—technological developmentAnswer
change in labour characteristics
mergers, acquisitions, etc.
Q77: When employee resistance provokes a well-grounded debate and constructive criticism leading to improvements in the change process, it is called
Answer: positive resistanceAnswer
Q78: Which type of employee resistance aims at ensuring the complete failure of change initiatives of the organization
Answer: negative resistanceAnswer
Q79: Which of the following is not a symptom of employee resistance to change
Answer: increase in performance and productivityAnswer
Q80: Which of the following is not a characteristic of a virtual company
Answer: permanent teamsAnswer
Q81: A horizontal networking among partners of the organization who perform different but related activities characterizes
Answer: displaced organizationAnswer
Q82: When the physical separation of employees is not known to the outsiders who perceive them as a single unit, it is called
Answer: displaced organizationAnswer
Q83: When employees perform work from their home and remain away from the office, it is called the ___model
Answer: telecommutingAnswer
Q84: When the employees perform their work from the clients workplace or site, it is called
Answer: frontlineAnswer
Q85: The country where the headquarters of a multinational company is located is known as
Answer: home countryAnswer
Q86: When an international firm follows a strategy of choosing only from the nationals of the parent country, it is called
Answer: ethnocentric approachAnswer
Q87: When the firms adopt a strategy of limiting recruitment to the nationalities of the host country where the branch is located, it is called
Answer: polycentric approachAnswer
Q88: When the firms choose a strategy of recruiting the most suitable persons for the positions available in the firm, irrespective of their nationalities, it is called
Answer: geocentric approachAnswer
Q89: Which of the following factors is not related directly to the success of expatriate assignments
Answer: the nature of products produced by the companyAnswer
Q90: The term competitive advantage stands for
Answer: the superior market position of a company in the market vis-a-vis its competitorsAnswer
Q91: The reason for organizations efforts to gain competitive advantage out of HR is
Answer: HR environment is responsible for competitive advantage as it cannot be imitated easily by the competitors.Answer
Q92: When a manager is moved to another country for employment, he is called
Answer: expatriateAnswer
Q93: The treatment of employees as one of the factors of production is the basic assumption of the ___version of HRM
Answer: hard
Answer
Q94: Which of the following resources is a source of competitive advantage
Answer: All of these—physical resourcesAnswer
human resources
organizational resources
Q95: Performance evaluation improves competitive advantage by
Answer: reducing grievance and labour turnover by making employees trust that they are treated fairlyAnswer
