Human Resource Management Objective Set 3

Q1: The planned use of networked information and communications technology for the delivery of training is called 

Answer

Answer: e-learning

Q2: Which one of the following is a source of assessing training needs 

Answer

Answer: all of these—performance evaluation
attitude survey
advisory panel

Q3: Laboratory training is also known by the name 

Answer

Answer: sensitivity training

Q4: ___method creates a situation that is as far as possible a replica of the real situation for imparting training 

Answer

Answer: The Simulation

Q5: A team of learners working online in a real-time mode using the Internet is known as 

Answer

Answer: group-based e-learning synchronously

Q6: Training need analysis takes place during which phase of the training process 

Answer

Answer: deciding what to teach

Q7: Recruitment is widely viewed as a ___process 

Answer

Answer: positive

Q8: The process of developing an applicants’ pool for job openings in an organization is called 

Answer

Answer: recruitment

Q9: Recruitment policy usually highlights the need for establishing 

Answer

Answer: job specification

Q10: ___indicates the degree to which a tool or test measures what it is supposed to measure 

Answer

Answer: validity

Q11: Which of the following is the most serious problem that might arise due to excessive reliance on internal recruitment 

Answer

Answer: internal resistance

Q12: Internal recruitment has the potentiality to increase the ___of the employees 

Answer

Answer: misunderstanding

Q13: Advertisements through newspapers, TV, radio, professional journals and magazines are ___methods of recruitment 

Answer

Answer: indirect

Q14: State employment exchanges are generally the main agencies of 

Answer

Answer: professional employment

Q15: A prerequisite for a successful and efficient recruitment programme is to have a(n) 

Answer

Answer: HR policy

Q16: Selection is usually considered as a ___process 

Answer

Answer: negative

Q17: The process of eliminating unsuitable candidates is called 

Answer

Answer: selection

Q18: Which of the following helps the managers with the information required to make good human resources decisions 

Answer

Answer: performance appraisal

Q19: The process of selection of employees is usually influenced by 

Answer

Answer: strategies and objectives

Q20: The purpose of an application blank is to gather information about the 

Answer

Answer: candidate

Q21: Which of the following is used to measure the various characteristics of the candidate 

Answer

Answer: psychological test

Q22: Identify the test that acts as an instrument to discover the inherent ability of a candidate 

Answer

Answer: aptitude test

Q23: When the candidate is put to hardship during interview, it is called 

Answer

Answer: stress interview

Q24: Which of the following orders is followed in a typical selection process 

Answer

Answer: Application form, test and/or interview, reference check and physical examination

Q25: Biographical inventory questions were developed by the 

Answer

Answer: American Psychological Association

Q26: Which of the following is not an objective of employee orientation 

Answer

Answer: raising the salary of the employees

Q27: The process of finding an appropriate fit between the people and the positions in an organization is called 

Answer

Answer: placement

Q28: The process of introducing or integrating the new employees into the organizational culture is known as 

Answer

Answer: socialization

Q29: The systematic process of offering essential information to the new employees is usually called 

Answer

Answer: orientation

Q30: The values, attitudes and other behaviours already acquired by the new employees before their entry into the firm is called 

Answer

Answer: anticipatory socialization

Q31: When the experienced superiors conduct a socialization programme for the new employees before they are placed in the organization, it is specifically called 

Answer

Answer: sequential strategy

Q32: Socialization programmes that aim at reinforcing the values and beliefs brought in by the new employees is called 

Answer

Answer: investiture strategy

Q33: Performance management is viewed as a process carried out as a(n) 

Answer

Answer: ongoing process or cycle

Q34: Performance evaluation can be defined as a process of evaluating 

Answer

Answer: past and present performance

Q35: The term performance rating system stands for 

Answer

Answer: a grade or score concerning the overall performance

Q36: The 360-degree performance feedback involves the evaluation of employees by 

Answer

Answer: all who are directly in contact with the ratee

Q37: Which of the following is the most essential requirement for an effective points-based rating system 

Answer

Answer: Comprehensive, dependable and consistent information

Q38: When the focus of the evaluation is on facts and not on traits, it is known as ___evaluation 

Answer

Answer: objective

Q39: The purpose of the Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scale(BARS) is to 

Answer

Answer: None of these—evaluate a good or bad performance
define a job
improve inter-personal relationship skills

Q40: Which of the following is an essential prerequisite of MBO 

Answer

Answer: All of these—Joint goal-setting
Mid-term review
Developing reviews

Q41: The evaluation method that requires the supervisors to keep a written record of positive and negative work-related actions of the employees is called 

Answer

Answer: Critical incident method

Q42: In which of the following methods is the evaluation done by someone other than the employee’s own supervisors 

Answer

Answer: Field review method

Q43: Job evaluation is a technique adopted for determining the ___of the job 

Answer

Answer: internal worth

Q44: When each job is individually compared with every other in the organization, it is called 

Answer

Answer: Ranking method

Q45: Which of the following is not an analytical method of job evaluation 

Answer

Answer: Paired comparison

Q46: Which of the following is an analytical method of job evaluation 

Answer

Answer: Point ranking method

Q47: When jobs are grouped on the basis of the similarities found in their characteristics and values, it is called 

Answer

Answer: Job grading

Q48: Providing equal pay for jobs of equal nature based on job evaluation ensures ___in compensation administration 

Answer

Answer: external equity

Q49: Payment of cash rewards for the work extracted from the employee is normally called 

Answer

Answer: direct compensation

Q50: Which of the following is the fixed component in compensation packages 

Answer

Answer: Base salary

Q51: Insurance schemes, retirement benefits and leave travel concession are examples of 

Answer

Answer: indirect monetary compensation

Q52: Ensuring a fair balance between an employee’s contributions to the job and the rewards received in return from that job is the essence of 

Answer

Answer: equity theory

Q53: Which of the following theory states that the employees work hard in the job only when they are sure of positive outcomes from that job 

Answer

Answer: Expectancy theory

Q54: Managers never own complete responsibility for the all the decisions made by them since they are not the owners of the business is the assumption of 

Answer

Answer: agency theory

Q55: Wages which are usually positioned above the minimum wages but below the living wages are described as 

Answer

Answer: fair wages

Q56: ___ensure that the employees get an income which is sufficient for meeting their present and future necessities and contingencies 

Answer

Answer: Living wages

Q57: Wages usually adjusted for the prevailing rate of inflation is called 

Answer

Answer: real wages

Q58: When there are several pay grades in a pay structure, it is called 

Answer

Answer: traditional pay structure

Q59: Which of the following factors is not an external influencing factor in wages and salary administration

Answer

Answer: None of these—Capacity of the organization to pay
Corporate policies and philosophy
Performance evaluation report
Correct Answer – Ability to pay

Q60: Which of the following is not an objective of executive compensation plans 

Answer

Answer: Separating ownership interest and controlling interest

Q61: Provision for cars, parking lots and membership in country club are examples of 

Answer

Answer: executive perks

Q62: Stock option and performance shares are examples of 

Answer

Answer: long-term incentive plan

Q63: Performance-based annual bonuses are an example of 

Answer

Answer: short-term incentive plan

Q64: Which of the following is not an objective of wage incentive programmes 

Answer

Answer: Facilitating the separation of employees

Q65: When the same rate of incentives is paid to the employees for each unit of goods produced by them, it is called 

Answer

Answer: Straight piece rate

Q66: When more than one piece rate is offered to the individuals for goods produced by them, it is called 

Answer

Answer: Differential piece rate

Q67: Which of the following methods discourages too much speed in the production by the employees 

Answer

Answer: Task and time bonuses

Q68: Evaluating the relative worth of the employees in the organization and then deciding the awards for them is called 

Answer

Answer: Merit rating

Q69: Which of following incentive systems recommends a two-piece rate for wage determination 

Answer

Answer: Taylor’s differential piece rate plan

Q70: In which of the following methods is the standard time stated as minutes and points 

Answer

Answer: Bedeaux system

Q71: Which of the following incentive plans has the following equation for computing the earnings of employees? (Actual hours worked x Time rate) + (Actual time worked / Standard time) x Time saved x Time rate 

Answer

Answer: Rowan incentive plan

Q72: Which of the following is not usually a group incentive plan 

Answer

Answer: Halsey incentive plan

Q73: Achieving cost saving not only on labour cost but also on overheads is the crux of 

Answer

Answer: Rucker incentive plan

Q74: In which method is the standard time expressed in terms of man-minutes called “MANT” 

Answer

Answer: Hayne’s incentive plan

Q75: Which of the following is an example of fringe benefits 

Answer

Answer: All of these—Health and accident insurance
Contribution to superannuation funds
Leave facilities

Q76: The primary purpose of employee safety programme is to preserve the employees 

Answer

Answer: All of these—mental health
physical health
emotional health

Q77: The visual presentation of the ranking of work sites in a factory based on the number of accidents reported from each site is called 

Answer

Answer: Spot Map Method

Q78: Which of the following involves redesigning of equipment, machinery and material for the safe performance of the jobs 

Answer

Answer: Safety engineering

Q79: The responsibility for maintenance of employee health and safety is with 

Answer

Answer: All of these—employees
employers
government

Q80: Ensuring the safety, health and welfare of the employees is the primary purpose of the 

Answer

Answer: Factories Act, 1948

Q81: Which of the following is not connected with employee safety and health 

Answer

Answer: The Payment of Bonus Act, 1965

Q82: When the people involved in the process comprehend unlikable results from their interactions with the environment, it is specifically called 

Answer

Answer: anticipatory stress

Q83: Inspections by superiors and interviews for promotion usually come under 

Answer

Answer: short-term response stress

Q84: Which of the following types of personality is comparatively less exposed to internal stress 

Answer

Answer: Type B personality

Q85: When the employee perceives threat in the environment even if there is no such threat existing in the environment, it is normally described as 

Answer

Answer: individual stressor

Q86: The exhaustion suffered by an individual due to continuous exposure to a stress-causing situation is normally known as 

Answer

Answer: burn-out

Q87: ___is a scientific and systematic effort to modify the characteristics of an employee’s job 

Answer

Answer: Job redesign

Q88: The employee welfare facilities available outside the organization are called 

Answer

Answer: extra-mural facilities

Q89: The employee welfare facilities available inside the organization are called 

Answer

Answer: intra-mural facilities

Q90: Who among the following has the responsibility for employee welfare 

Answer

Answer: All of these—Employers
Central government
State government

Q91: In the absence of statutory requirements, the employers may not provide even the basic facilities to the employees. This is the basic assumption of the 

Answer

Answer: Policing theory

Q92: According to which theory, employee welfare is an investment which would multiply and return to the employers in some other forms 

Answer

Answer: Religious theory

Q93: An inclination to do something good for others can influence the employers to undertake welfare facilities. This is the assumption of the 

Answer

Answer: Benevolence theory

Q94: Making peace with employees by fulfilling all their needs without any resistance is the essence of the 

Answer

Answer: Appeasement theory

Q95: Which of the following benefits is covered under social security schemes 

Answer

Answer: All of these—Retirement benefits
Compensation facilities
Medical facilities

Q96: In which year was the Employees’ State Insurance Act enacted 

Answer

Answer: 1948

Q97: In which of the following years was the Workmen’s Compensation Act introduced 

Answer

Answer: 1923

Q98: The Maternity Benefit Act was introduced in the year 

Answer

Answer: 1961

Q99: The Payment of Gratuity Act was introduced in the year 

Answer

Answer: 1972

Q100: Employees’ Deposit Linked Insurance Scheme was introduced in the year 

Answer

Answer: 1976

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