Fundamentals of Financial Management mcq practice set 3

Q81. What type of finance involves the purchase of goods or services with the agreement to pay for them at a later date?
a) Accruals
b) Leasing
c) Trade Credit
d) Public Deposits

Answer

Answer: c) Trade Credit

Q82. Which source of short-term finance involves borrowing funds from other corporations?
a) Factoring
b) Inter-corporate Deposits
c) Leverage Buyouts
d) Commercial Paper

Answer

Answer: b) Inter-corporate Deposits

Q83. Securitization involves the process of converting which of the following into tradable securities?
a) Trade Credit
b) Accruals
c) Public Deposits
d) Financial assets

Answer

Answer: d) Financial assets

Q84. Which of the following represents a source of finance commonly used for working capital requirements?
a) ADRs
b) Ordinary Shares
c) Hybrid Securities
d) Commercial Paper

Answer

Answer: d) Commercial Paper

Q85. What is the term used for the process of selling trade receivables to a third party at a discount?
a) Factoring
b) Leasing
c) Accruals
d) Hire purchase

Answer

Answer: a) Factoring

Q86. Which of the following represents an institutional source of funds?
a) Hire purchase
b) Inter-corporate Deposits
c) Leverage Buyouts
d) Banks

Answer

Answer: d) Banks

Q87. What is the term used for the process of raising capital by issuing shares to private investors?
a) Inter-corporate Deposits
b) Leverage Buyouts
c) Venture Capital Financing (VCF)
d) ADRs

Answer

Answer: c) Venture Capital Financing (VCF)

Q88. Which of the following is a form of short-term financing provided by commercial banks?
a) FII’s (Foreign Institutional Investors)
b) Term Loans
c) Public Deposits
d) Working capital advance

Answer

Answer: d) Working capital advance

Q89. Leverage Buyouts involve the use of debt financing to acquire a company primarily for the purpose of:
a) Short-term investments
b) Long-term financing
c) Operating expenses
d) Asset restructuring

Answer

Answer: d) Asset restructuring

Q90. What is the primary function of securitization in finance?
a) Financing long-term projects
b) Acquiring fixed assets
c) Converting assets into tradable securities
d) Raising capital through equity shares

Answer

Answer: c) Converting assets into tradable securities

Q91. Which of the following is not a factor influencing working capital requirement?
a) Seasonal variations in sales
b) Credit policy
c) Economic conditions
d) Fixed assets

Answer

Answer: d) Fixed assets

Q92. The estimation of working capital requirement involves:
a) Determining optimal cash level
b) Analyzing negative working capital
c) Assessing long-term financing options
d) Forecasting cash inflows and outflows

Answer

Answer: d) Forecasting cash inflows and outflows

Q93. The operating cycle analysis helps in understanding:
a) The length of a company’s fiscal year
b) The process of converting raw materials into finished goods
c) The time it takes to convert inventory and receivables into cash
d) The impact of inflation on working capital

Answer

Answer: c) The time it takes to convert inventory and receivables into cash

Q94. Negative working capital refers to a situation where:
a) A company’s liabilities exceed its assets
b) The current ratio is below 1
c) The operating cycle is longer than usual
d) The cash flow is negative

Answer

Answer: b) The current ratio is below 1

Q95. The primary objective of inventory management is to:
a) Minimize stockouts and overstocking
b) Maximize the value of inventory
c) Reduce the lead time for ordering inventory
d) Eliminate all carrying costs associated with inventory

Answer

Answer: a) Minimize stockouts and overstocking

Q96. The EOQ model is used to determine:
a) The economic order quantity of inventory
b) The total cost of ordering inventory
c) The reorder point for inventory
d) The lead time for inventory replenishment

Answer

Answer: a) The economic order quantity of inventory

Q97. Receivables management refers to the:
a) Process of selling accounts receivable to a third party
b) Assessment of customer creditworthiness
c) Calculation of the average collection period
d) Effective management of a company’s accounts receivable

Answer

Answer: d) Effective management of a company’s accounts receivable

Q98. Cash planning involves:
a) Investing surplus cash in long-term assets
b) Analyzing the company’s cash flows
c) Determining the optimal cash level
d) Forecasting the company’s future cash inflows and outflows

Answer

Answer: d) Forecasting the company’s future cash inflows and outflows

Q99. The Baumol Model is used to determine the:
a) Optimal cash level for a company
b) Economic order quantity for inventory
c) Average collection period for receivables
d) Maximum permissible bank finance

Answer

Answer: a) Optimal cash level for a company

Q100. Investing surplus cash involves:
a) Holding cash in a safe deposit box
b) Lending cash to customers
c) Investing cash in short-term securities
d) Using cash to pay off long-term debt

Answer

Answer: c) Investing cash in short-term securities

Q101. The Maximum Permissible Bank Finance (MPBF) is calculated based on:
a) The company’s credit policy
b) The company’s fixed assets
c) The company’s inventory turnover ratio
d) The company’s working capital gap

Answer

Answer: d) The company’s working capital gap

Q102. Which of the following is not a factor of influencing working capital?
a) Level of competition in the industry
b) Length of the production cycle
c) Cost of goods sold
d) Payment terms offered to customers

Answer

Answer: c) Cost of goods sold

Q103. The EOQ model helps in determining the:
a) Optimal level of accounts receivable
b) Optimal order quantity of inventory
c) Optimal cash balance
d) Optimal level of fixed assets

Answer

Answer: b) Optimal order quantity of inventory

Q104. Receivables management involves:
a) Determining the optimal level of cash reserves
b) Calculating the average collection period
c) Analyzing the company’s inventory turnover ratio
d) Evaluating the company’s credit policy

Answer

Answer: b) Calculating the average collection period

Q105. What is the significance of cost of capital?
a. It determines the firm’s profitability.
b. It indicates the company’s market share.
c. It helps in evaluating investment opportunities.
d. It measures the company’s liquidity.

Answer

Answer: c. It helps in evaluating investment opportunities.

Q106. Which of the following is not an assumption of cost of capital analysis?
a. Perfect capital markets.
b. Constant tax rates.
c. Constant dividend policy.
d. Efficient market hypothesis.

Answer

Answer: d. Efficient market hypothesis.

Q107. Floatation cost refers to:
a. The cost of issuing new securities.
b. The cost of holding cash reserves.
c. The cost of debt repayment.
d. The cost of inventory management.

Answer

Answer: a. The cost of issuing new securities.

Q108. Which of the following sources of capital has the highest floatation cost?
a. Equity shares.
b. Debt.
c. Reserve & Surplus.
d. Preference shares.

Answer

Answer: a. Equity shares.

Q109. The computation of cost of capital for equity involves adjusting for:
a. Floatation cost.
b. Interest expense.
c. Dividend payments.
d. Depreciation expense.

Answer

Answer: a. Floatation cost.

Q110. Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC) is calculated using:
a. Book value weights only.
b. Market value weights only.
c. Both book value and market value weights.
d. Equal weights for all sources of capital.

Answer

Answer: c. Both book value and market value weights.

Q111. EBIT-EPS analysis is used to determine:
a. The company’s tax liabilities.
b. The company’s earnings per share.
c. The company’s dividend payout ratio.
d. The company’s cost of capital.

Answer

Answer: b. The company’s earnings per share.

Q112. Operating leverage refers to the:
a. Use of debt to finance a company’s operations.
b. Proportion of fixed costs in a company’s cost structure.
c. Use of equity financing for expansion projects.
d. Degree of uncertainty in a company’s sales revenue.

Answer

Answer: b. Proportion of fixed costs in a company’s cost structure.

Q113. Financial leverage measures the impact of:
a. Changes in sales volume on a company’s earnings.
b. Changes in interest rates on a company’s profitability.
c. Changes in the company’s capital structure on its returns.
d. Changes in the company’s tax rate on its net income.

Answer

Answer: c. Changes in the company’s capital structure on its returns.

Q114. Combined leverage is a combination of:
a. Operating leverage and financial leverage.
b. Financial leverage and market leverage.
c. Market leverage and operating leverage.
d. Operating leverage and liquidity leverage.

Answer

Answer: a. Operating leverage and financial leverage.

Q115. The cost of debt is typically lower than the cost of equity because debt:
a. Requires periodic interest payments.
b. Involves more risk for the company.
c. Provides voting rights to the shareholders.
d. Has priority in claim over company assets.

Answer

Answer: d. Has priority in claim over company assets.

Q116. The cost of equity is influenced by:
a. The company’s debt-to-equity ratio.
b. The company’s capital budgeting decisions.
c. The company’s dividend payout ratio.
d. The company’s inventory turnover ratio.

Answer

Answer: c. The company’s dividend payout ratio.

Q117. Which type of leverage increases the potential returns for shareholders?
a. Operating leverage.
b. Financial leverage.
c. Combined leverage.
d. None of the above.

Answer

Answer: b. Financial leverage.

Q118. Which component is not included in the calculation of weighted average cost of capital (WACC)?
a. Cost of equity.
b. Cost of debt.
c. Cost of retained earnings.
d. Cost of preference shares.

Answer

Answer: c. Cost of retained earnings.

Q119. Leverage can magnify:
a. Both profits and losses.
b. Profits only.
c. Losses only.
d. None of the above.

Answer

Answer: a. Both profits and losses.

Q120. The break-even point is the level of sales where:
a. Total costs equal total revenue.
b. Total costs exceed total revenue.
c. Total costs are lower than total revenue.
d. None of the above.

Answer

Answer: a. Total costs equal total revenue.

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