QN1. To which two file formats can you download query results? (Choose two)
a) XLS
b) CSV
c) EXL
d) TXT
e) DOC
Answer
Answer: a,b
QN2. What is a benefit of the PeopleSoft Internet Architecture browser-based deployment?
a) It offers a robust, scalable, client-centric architecture.
b) It is a PeopleTools Windows client built to run on the Internet.
c) It moves some of the code from the client to an Application Server.
d) It lowers training time because it operates like Windows.
e) It features an intuitive Web look and functions like Yahoo.
Answer
Answer: e
QN3. Which statement about navigating PeopleSoft 8 applications is true?
a) The client workstation must be using Windows NT
b) A user profile must be set up prior to signon
c) PeopleSoft 8 must be installed on the client
d) Internet Explorer must be used to access PeopleSoft 8
e) The client workstation must be mapped to the Application Serve
Answer
Answer: b
QN4. What are two valid ways to comment code in the PeopleCode editor? (Choose two)
a) // code
b) <* code > c) COMMENTS code d) ! Code e) / code */
Answer
Answer: b,e
QN5. When defining the properties of a Menu Item, what are Menu type options?
a) Separator, PeopleCode, or MenuGroup
b) Component, MenuBars, or MenuGroup
c) Page, BarItem, or MenuGroup
d) Page, MenuLabels, or MenuGroup
e) Component, PeopleCode, or Separator
Answer
Answer: e
QN6. On which three RDBMS platforms does PeopleSoft support Unicode? (Choose three)
a) Oracle
b) IBM DB2 MVS
c) Microsoft SQL Server
d) Informix
e) IBM DB2/UDB
Answer
Answer: a,c,e
QN7. Which statement about deferred processing is true?
a) It has no impact on performance for PeopleSoft applications accessed using the PeopleSoft Internet Architecture
b) It can be selectively enabled or disabled for any field on a page, regardless of whether or not it is enabled on Page and Component Definitions
c) It is effectively disabled if the attribute is not set in the Component Definition, regardless of the page (and Page Field) settings
d) It can be disabled only by turning off the attribute on all Component and Page Definitions
e) It is relevant only to PeopleSoft applications accessed via the Windows client
Answer
Answer: c
QN8. What are two valid values for the Optimizer mode in Oracle? (Choose two)
a) STATISTIC
b) COST
c) RULE
d) DATA_DIST
Answer
Answer: b,c
QN9. Which two Web service solutions function only as proxy servers? (Choose two)
a) Microsoft IIS
b) IBM WebSphere
c) Apache
d) BEA WebLogic
Answer
Answer: a,c
QN10. Which BEA product does PeopleSoft use to manage database transactions?
a) WebLogic
b) RDMS
c) JOLT
d) SQL
e) Tuxedo
Answer
Answer: e
QN11. Which topics are covered by PeopleTools PeopleBooks?
a) Integration Broker, Process Scheduler, PeopleCode Developers guide, and Query
b) Data Mover, Query, Application Engine, and Developer’s Portal
c) Application Designer, PS/nVison, Customer Connection, and Administration Tools
d) Workflow, Upgrade Assistant, Compass Methodology, and Tree Manager
e) Security, PeopleTools Global Technology, Component Interfaces, and Payroll
Answer
Answer: a
QN12. Which topic is contained in the PeopleTools PeopleBook?
a) Managing Workforce Data
b) PeopleSoft Table Loading Sequence
c) PeopleSoft Enterprise Warehouse
d) PeopleSoft General Ledger
e) PeopleSoft Upgrade Assistant
Answer
Answer: e
QN13. What allows you to get a single result set from two or more separate queries at the same time?
a) Multiple Select
b) Union
c) Inner Join
d) Outer Join
e) Dynamic Where
Answer
Answer: b
QN15. Where are definitions used to create fields on a page in the user interface and columns in application data tables stored?
a) PSFIELD
b) PSRECFIELD
c) PS_DBFIELD
d) PSDBFIELD
Answer
Answer: d
QN16. Where are the definitions that make up a PeopleSoft Application stored?
a) SYSTEM CATALOG
b) PEOPLETOOLS TABLES
c) APPLICATION TABLES
d) PEOPLETOOLS CATALOG
Answer
Answer: b
QN17. PeopleSoft has its own naming convention for system and non-system tables. In the list below,
RECORDNAME refers to the name of any table or record. Referring to the above information, which one
of the following identifies the naming convention PeopleSoft uses for system tables?
a) PS_RECORDNAME
b) SYSRECORDNAME
c) PS$RECORDNAME
d) PSRECORDNAME
e) SYS_PSRECORDNAME
Answer
Answer: d
QN18. Where is the Application Data Cached?
a) Application server
b) Web server
c) Batch server
d) Browser Cache
e) None
Answer
Answer: e
QN19. Demand for a given item is said to be dependent if
a. the item has several children
b. there is a deep bill of materials
c. the finished products are mostly services (rather than goods)
d. there is a clearly identifiable parent
Answer
Answer: : D
QN20. Dependent demand and independent demand items differ in that
a. for any product, all components are dependent-demand items
b. the need for independent-demand items is forecasted
c. the need for dependent-demand items is calculated
d. all of the above are true
Answer
Answer: : D
QN21. A master production schedule specifies
a. the financial resources required for production
b. what component is to be made, and when
c. what product is to be made, and when
d. the labor hours required for production
Answer
Answer: : C
QN22. The __ is(are) the MRP input detailing which end items are to be produced, when they are needed, and in what quantities.
a. master production schedule
b. gross requirements
c. inventory records
d. assembly time chart
Answer
Answer: : A
QN23. A master production schedule contains information about
a. quantities and required delivery dates of all sub-assemblies
b. quantities and required delivery dates of final products
c. inventory on hand for each sub-assembly
d. inventory on hand for each final product
Answer
Answer: : B
QN24. In continuous (make-to-stock) operations, the master production schedule is usually expressed in terms of
a. end-items
b. modules
c. kits
d. customer orders
Answer
Answer: : A
QN26. In job shop (make-to-order) operations, the master production schedule is usually expressed in terms of
a. end-items
b. modules
c. kits
d. customer orders
Answer
Answer: : D
QN27. The following table is an example of a(n)
Week 1 Week 2 Week 3 Week 4 Week 5
Clothes Washer 200 100
Clothes Dryer 300 100 100 100
Upright Freezer 200 500
a. aggregate plan
b. load report
c. master production schedule
d. inventory record
Answer
Answer: : C
QN28. The __ is the input to Materials Requirements Planning which lists the assemblies,
subassemblies, parts and raw materials needed to produce one unit of finished product.
a. bill of materials
b. net requirements chart
c. inventory records
d. assembly time chart
Answer
Answer: : A
QN29. A bill of materials lists the
a. times needed to perform all phases of production
b. production schedules for all products
c. components, ingredients, and materials required to produce an item
d. operations required to produce an item
Answer
Answer: : C
QN30. One way to facilitate production scheduling and production in firms making a large number of different final products is to use
a. planning bills
b. modular bills
c. phantom bills
d. overdue bills
Answer
Answer: : B
QN31. The bill of materials contains information necessary to
a. convert (explode) net requirements at one level into gross requirements at the next level
b. calculate quantities on hand and on order
c. convert gross requirements into net requirements
d. place an order to replenish the item
Answer
Answer: : A
QN32. Which of the following statements best compares modular bills and phantom bills?
a. Both pertain to assemblies that are not inventoried.
b. There is no difference between the two.
c. Both pertain to assemblies that are inventoried.
d. Modular bills represent subassemblies that actually exist and are inventoried, while phantom
bills represent subassemblies that exist only temporarily and are not inventoried.
Answer
Answer: : D
QN33. Given the following bill-of-materials:
If the demand for product A is 50 units, what will be the gross requirement for component E?
a. 300
b. 100
c. 200
d. 250
Answer
Answer: : A
QN34. The minimum record accuracy required for successful MRP is approximately
a. lower than 90%
b. 90%
c. 95%
d. 99%
Answer
Answer: : D
QN35. Given the following bill of materials
If the demand for product A is 50 units, what will be the gross requirement for component E?
a. 50
b. 100
c. 150
d. 200
Answer
Answer: : A
QN36. Given the following bill of materials
If the demand for product A is 30 units, and there are on hand 10 units of B and none of C, how many units of part D will be needed?
a. 3
b. 40
c. 70
d. 90
Answer
Answer: : C
QN37. “Exploding” the bill of materials means
a. converting the bill of materials into components and raw material requirements
b. identifying the lead time of all the components
c. determining the various components’ quantities that are already on hand
d. determining the net requirements for all the components
Answer
Answer: : A
QN38. Low level coding means that
a. a final item has only a few levels in the BOM structure
b. it is the code for the missing items
c. a component item is coded at the lowest level at which it appears in the BOM structure
d. the top level of the BOM is below level zero and that BOM’s are not organized around the finished product
Answer
Answer: : C
QN39. Each X requires 2 of component Y; each Y requires 4 of part Z. The lead time for assembly of X is
1 week. The lead time for the manufacture of Y is 1 week. The lead time for the procurement of Z
is 6 weeks. The cumulative lead time for X is _ weeks.
a. 48
b. 7
c. 8
d. 10
Answer
Answer: : C
QN40. Each R requires 4 of component S; each S requires 3 of part T. The lead time for assembly of R is 1 week. The lead time for the manufacture of S is 2 weeks. The lead time for the procurement of T is 6 weeks. The cumulative lead time for R is __ weeks.
a. 6
b. 9
c. 12
d. 18
Answer
Answer: : B
