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Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. Which paradigm relies on the natural compartmentalization of a problem and organizes team members to work on pieces of the problem with little active communication among themselves?
a) random paradigm
b) open paradigm
c) closed paradigm
d) synchronous paradigm

View Answer

Answer: c

2. Who interacts with the software once it is released for production use?
a) End-users
b) Client
c) Project (technical) managers
d) Senior managers

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] A product is always built to satisfy an end-user.

3. Which of the following is not an effective project manager trait?
a) Problem solving
b) Managerial identity
c) Influence and team building
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] All are key traits of an effective project manager.

4. Which type of software engineering team has a defined leader who coordinates specific tasks and secondary leaders that have responsibility for sub tasks?
a) Controlled decentralized (CD)
b) Democratic decentralized (DD)
c) Controlled centralized (CC)
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Problem solving remains a group activity, but implementation of solutions is partitioned among subgroups by the team leader.

5. Commitments to unrealistic time and resource estimates may result in
a) project delay
b) poor quality work
c) project failure
d) all of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d

6. Which software engineering team has no permanent leader?
a) Controlled decentralized (CD)
b) Democratic decentralized (DD)
c) Controlled Centralized (CC)
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Here Communication among team members is horizontal.

7. Which of the following is not a project factor that should be considered when planning the structure of software engineering teams?
a) The difficulty of the problem to be solved
b) High frustration caused by personal, business, or technological factors that causes friction among team members
c) The degree of sociability required for the project
d) The rigidity of the delivery date

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Development is irrelevant of social quotient.

8. Which of the following is a collection of project coordination technique?
a) Formal approaches
b) Formal, interpersonal procedures
c) Informal, interpersonal procedures
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d

9. Which activity sits at the core of software requirements analysis?
a) Problem decomposition
b) Partitioning
c) Problem elaboration
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] During the scoping activity decomposition is applied in two major areas: the functionality that must be delivered and the process that will be used to deliver it.

10. Which of the following is not a sign that indicates that an information systems project is in jeopardy?
a) Software people don’t understand their customer’s needs
b) Changes are managed poorly
c) Sponsorship is gained
d) Users are resistant

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Other options are contradictory of the question.

11. SPMP stands for
a) Software Project Manager’s Plan
b) Software Project Management Plan
c) Software Product Management Plan
d) Software Product Manager’s Plan

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] After planning is complete, documenting of the plans is done in a Software Project Management Plan(SPMP) document.

Set 2

1. Why is decomposition technique required?
a) Software project estimation is a form of problem solving
b) Developing a cost and effort estimate for a software project is too complex
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] For these reasons, we decompose the problem, re-characterizing it as a set of smaller problems.

2. Cost and effort estimation of a software uses only one forms of decomposition, either decomposition of the problem or decomposition of the process.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Estimation uses one or both forms of partitioning.

3. If a Direct approach to software project sizing is taken, size can be measured in
a) LOC
b) FP
c) LOC and FP
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] LOC or Line of Code is a direct measure to estiom ate project size.

4. Which software project sizing approach develop estimates of the information domain characteristics?
a) Function point sizing
b) Change sizing
c) Standard component sizing
d) Fuzzy logic sizing

View Answer

Answer: a

5. The expected value for the estimation variable (size), S, can be computed as a weighted average of the optimistic(Sopt), most likely (Sm), and pessimistic (Spess) estimates given as
a) EV = (Sopt + 4Sm + Spess)/4
b) EV = (Sopt + 4Sm + Spess)/6
c) EV = (Sopt + 2Sm + Spess)/6
d) EV = (Sopt + 2Sm + Spess)/4

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] This assumes that there is a very small probability that the actual size result will fall outside the optimistic or pessimistic values.

6. How many forms exists of Barry Boehm’s COCOMO Model?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) No form exists

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The three forms include the basic, intermediate and advanced COCOMO model.

7. Who suggested the four different approaches to the sizing problem?
a) Putnam
b) Myers
c) Boehm
d) Putnam and Myers

View Answer

Answer: d

8. In many cases, it is often more cost effective to acquire, rather than develop, computer software.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Mangers are faced with a make-buy decision in such situations.

9. A make-buy decision is based on whether
a) The software may be purchased off-the-shelf
b) “Full-experience” or “Partial-experience” software components should be used
c) Customer-built software should be developed
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] None..

10. Which of the following is not one of the five information domain characteristics of Function Point (FP) decomposition?
a) External inputs
b) External outputs
c) External process
d) External inquiries

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] External inputs, external outputs, external inquiries, internal logical files, external interface files are the five domains.

11. The project planner must reconcile the estimates based on decomposition techniques to produce a single estimate of effort.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The planner must determine the cause of divergence and then reconcile the estimates.

12. Programming language experience is a part of which factor of COCOMO cost drivers?
a) Personnel Factor
b) Product Factor
c) Platform Factor
d) Project Factor

View Answer

Answer: a

13. If an Indirect approach is taken, then the sizing approach is represented as
a) LOC
b) FP
c) Fuzzy Logic
d) LOC and FP

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] A function point (FP) is a unit of measurement to express the amount of business functionality an information system provides to a user.

Set 3

Here is a listing of tough C++ programming questions on “Function Declarations” along with answers, explanations and/or solutions:

1. Where does the execution of the program starts?
a) user-defined function
b) main function
c) void function
d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Normally the execution of the program in c++ starts from main only.

2. What are mandatory parts in function declaration?
a) return type, function name
b) return type, function name, parameters
c) parameters, function name
d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] In a function, return type and function name are mandatory all else are just used as a choice.

3. which of the following is used to terminate the function declaration?
a) :
b) )
c) ;
d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c

4. How many max number of arguments can present in function in c99 compiler?
a) 99
b) 90
c) 102
d) 127

View Answer

Answer: d

5. Which is more effective while calling the functions?
a) call by value
b) call by reference
c) call by pointer
d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] In the call by reference, it will just copy the address of the variable to access it, so it will reduce the memory in accessing it.

6. What is the output of this program?

  1.     #include <iostream>
  2.     using namespace std;
  3.     void mani()
  4.     void mani()
  5.     {
  6.         cout<<"hai";
  7.     }
  8.     int main()
  9.     {
  10.         mani();
  11.         return 0;
  12.     }

a) hai
b) haihai
c) compile time error
d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] We have to use the semicolon to declare the function in line 3. If we did means, the program will execute.

7. What is the output of this program?

  1.     #include <iostream>
  2.     using namespace std;
  3.     void fun(int x, int y)
  4.     {
  5.         x = 20;
  6.         y = 10;
  7.     }
  8.     int main()
  9.     {
  10.         int x = 10;
  11.         fun(x, x);
  12.         cout << x;
  13.         return 0;
  14.     }

a) 10
b) 20
c) compile time error
d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] In this program, we called by value so the value will not be changed, So the output is 10 Output: $ g++ fun.cpp $ a.out 10

8. What is the scope of the variable declared in the user definied function?
a) whole program
b) only inside the {} block
c) main function
d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The variable is valid only in the function block as in other.

9. How many minimum number of functions are need to be presented in c++?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The main function is the mandatory part, it is needed for the execution of the program to start.

Set 4

1. What is the work of drying process?
a) Decreases the moisture content
b) Vaporizes water
c) Increases the moisture content
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Drying decreases the moisture content of air.

2. What is the work of humidification process?
a) Vaporization
b) Freezing
c) Condensing
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Humidification vaporizes liquid water to moist air.

3. In condensation, moist air is cooled below its which temperature?
a) Dew-point temperature
b) Dry-bulb temperature
c) Wet-bulb temperature
d) Saturation temperature

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] In condensation, moist air is cooled below its saturation temperature.

4. What is added to the moist air in the combustion process?
a) Water
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Oxygen
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Water is added to the moist air in the combustion process.

5. In air conditioning process, what has to be done first to the moist air?
a) Heating
b) Cooling
c) Heating & Cooling
d) None of mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] In air conditioning process, moist air is heated and then cooled.

6. Enthalpy of air is 15 J and enthalpy of water vapor is 20 J, if the total enthalpy of the system is 20 J, what is the humidity of the system?
a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 100%

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] 20 = 15 + 20*H, => H = 0.25 = 25%.

7. Enthalpy of air is 5 J and enthalpy of water vapor is 10 J, if the total enthalpy of the system is 25 J, what is the humidity of the system?
a) 50%
b) 100%
c) 150%
d) 200%

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] 25 = 5 + 10*H, => H = 2, => H = 200%.

8. Enthalpy of air is 10 J and enthalpy of water vapor is 15 J, if the total enthalpy of the system is 25 J, what is the humidity of the system?
a) 20%
b) 50%
c) 100%
d) 180%

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] 25 = 10 + 15*H, => H = 1, => H = 100%.

9. Enthalpy of air is 15 J and enthalpy of water vapor is 20 J, if the total enthalpy of the system is 25 J, what is the humidity of the system?
a) 10%
b) 50%
c) 100%
d) 200%

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] 25 = 15 + 20*H, => H = 0.5, => H = 50%.

10. Enthalpy of air is 20 J and enthalpy of water vapor is 6 J, if the total enthalpy of the system is 23 J, what is the humidity of the system?
a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 40%
d) 50%

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] 23 = 20 + 6*H, => H = 0.5, => H = 50%.

11. The humidity at dry-bulb temperature of 20oC is 40% and the humidity at dry-bulb temperature of 25oC is 25%, what is the slope of adiabatic cooling line?
a) 0.03
b) -0.03
c) 0.05
d) -0.05

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Slope of adiabatic cooling line = (0.4 – 0.25)/(20 – 25) = -0.03.

12. The humidity at dry-bulb temperature of 23oC is 30% and the humidity at dry-bulb temperature of 28oC is 25%, what is the slope of adiabatic cooling line?
a) -0.01
b) -0.02
c) -0.03
d) -0.05

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Slope of adiabatic cooling line = (0.3 – 0.25)/(23 – 28) = -0.01.

13. The humidity at dry-bulb temperature of 20oC is 30% and the humidity at dry-bulb temperature of 22oC is 24%, what is the slope of adiabatic cooling line?
a) -0.01
b) -0.02
c) -0.03
d) -0.05

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Slope of adiabatic cooling line = (0.3 – 0.24)/(20 – 22) = -0.03.

14. The humidity at dry-bulb temperature of 20oC is 10% and the humidity at dry-bulb temperature of 23oC is 4%, what is the slope of adiabatic cooling line?
a) -0.01
b) -0.02
c) -0.03
d) -0.05

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Slope of adiabatic cooling line = (0.1 – 0.04)/(20 – 23) = -0.02.

15. The humidity at dry-bulb temperature of 20oC is 12% and the humidity at dry-bulb temperature of 23oC is 3%, what is the slope of adiabatic cooling line?
a) -0.01
b) -0.02
c) -0.03
d) -0.05

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Slope of adiabatic cooling line = (0.12 – 0.03)/(20 – 23) = -0.03.

Set 5

1. What is the heat of solution in the energy balance?
a) Heat of dissolution
b) Heat of reaction
c) Heat of formation
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Heat of solution in the energy balance is the heat of reaction.

2. What is required in the calculation of heat of reaction in the energy balance of mixing?
a) Heat of formation
b) Sensible Heat
c) Latent heat
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Heat of formation is required in the calculation of heat of reaction in the energy balance of mixing.

3. How is the graph of heat of solution and dilution?
a) Straight Line
b) Curve with finite heat of solution at infinite dilution
c) Curve with Infinite heat of solution at infinite dilution
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Heat of solution is a finite curve at infinite dilution.

4. Which of the following is required for the calculation of heat of reaction in the energy balance?
a) Heat of solution at reference state
b) Heat of dissolution at reference state
c) Heat of formation
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Heat of solution at reference state, Heat of dissolution at reference state and heat of formation all are required in the calculation of Heat of reaction.

5. What is the heat of dissolution if the heat of reaction is 10 J in the energy balance?
a) -10 J
b) 10 J
c) 0
d) Cannot be determined

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Heat of dissolution = – Heat of solution = – Heat of reaction = -10 J.

6. What is the heat transferred from the system if the output sensible heat is 10 J, input sensible heat is 15 J, and heat of solution is 20 J?
a) 10 J
b) 15 J
c) 20 J
d) 25 J

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Q = ∆Hout,sensible – ∆Hin,sensible + ∆Hsolution = 10 – 15 + 20 = 15 J.

7. What is the heat transferred from the system if the output sensible heat is 5 J, input sensible heat is 25 J, and heat of solution is 20 J?
a) 0
b) 5 J
c) 10 J
d) 15 J

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Q = ∆Hout,sensible – ∆Hin,sensible + ∆Hsolution = 5 – 15 + 20 = 15 J.

8. What is the heat transferred from the system if the output sensible heat is 5 J, input sensible heat is 20 J, and heat of solution is 10 J?
a) -10 J
b) -5 J
c) 0
d) 10 J

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Q = ∆Hout,sensible – ∆Hin,sensible + ∆Hsolution = 5 – 20 + 10 = -5 J.

9. What is the heat transferred from 5 mole of the system if the output sensible heat is 1 J/mole, input sensible heat is 3 J/mole, and heat of solution is 4 J/mole?
a) 0
b) 5 J
c) 10 J
d) 20 J

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Q = ∆Hout,sensible – ∆Hin,sensible + ∆Hsolution = 5*(1 – 3 + 4) = 10 J.

10. What is the heat transferred from 2 mole of the system if the output sensible heat is 3 J/mole, input sensible heat is 2 J/mole, and heat of solution is 2 J/mole?
a) 2 J
b) 3 J
c) 5 J
d) 6 J

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Q = ∆Hout,sensible – ∆Hin,sensible + ∆Hsolution = 2*(3 – 2 + 2) = 6 J.

11. Enthalpy-Concentration diagram represents which type of solution?
a) Binary
b) Tertiary
c) Quaternary
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Enthalpy-Concentration diagram represents binary solutions.

12. What is the final enthalpy of the solution made by mixing 100 grams of 10% NaOH having enthalpy 40 J with 300 grams of 90% NaOH having enthalpy 20 J?
a) 10 J
b) 15 J
c) 25 J
d) 40 J

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Final enthalpy = 0.25*40 + 0.75*20 = 10 + 15 = 25 J.

13. What is the final enthalpy of the solution made by mixing 10 grams of solution A having enthalpy 10 J with 40 grams of solution B having enthalpy 30 J?
a) 14 J
b) 18 J
c) 22 J
d) 26 J

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Final enthalpy = 0.2*10 + 0.8*30 = 26 J.

14. What is the final enthalpy of the solution made by mixing 20 grams of solution A having enthalpy 5 J with 5 grams of solution B having enthalpy 10 J?
a) 2 J
b) 4 J
c) 6 J
d) 7 J

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Final enthalpy = 0.8*5 + 0.2*10 = 4 + 2 = 6 J.

15. What is the final enthalpy of the solution made by mixing 5 grams of solution A having enthalpy 20 J with 15 grams of solution B having enthalpy 40 J?
a) 10 J
b) 20 J
c) 25 J
d) 35 J

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Final enthalpy = 0.25*20 + 0.75*40 = 5 + 30 = 35 J.