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Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. Which of the following is not the function of helper T cells is
a) Produce soluble signaling proteins called cytokines, which include the interleukins
b) They help activate cytotoxic T cells to kill infected target cells
c) They help activate B cells to secrete antibodies and macrophages to destroy ingested microbes
d) They recognize and bind extracellular ligands

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The function of TH cells is to interact with macrophages and secrete cytokines that stimulate TC, TH and B cells to proliferate.

2. Which of the following is a function of Macrophages?
a) Ingest large particles and cells by phagocytes
b) Produce and secrete antibodies
c) Interact with infected host cells through receptors on T-cell surface
d) Interact with macrophages and secrete cytokines

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The remaining are the functions of B cells, TC and TH cells respectively.

3. Which of the following is a function of B lymphocytes?
a) Ingest large particles and cells by phagocytes
b) Produce and secrete antibodies
c) Interact with infected host cells through receptors on T-cell surface
d) Interact with macrophages and secrete cytokines

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The remaining are the functions of macrophages, TC and TH cells respectively.

4. Which of the following is a function of T lymphocytes?
a) Ingest large particles and cells by phagocytes
b) Produce and secrete antibodies
c) Interact with infected host cells through receptors on T-cell surface
d) Interact with macrophages and secrete cytokines

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The remaining are the functions of macrophages, B cells and TC respectively.

5. The most abundant immunoglobulin is
a) IgA
b) IgE
c) IgG
d) IgM

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] IgG is the most abundant antibody found in all body fluids.

6. Which of the following is the largest immunoglobulin?
a) IgA
b) IgE
c) IgG
d) IgM

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] IgM is the largest pentameric type of antibody in the human circulatory system.

7. The antibody present in secretions like tears and saliva is
a) IgA
b) IgE
c) IgG
d) IgM

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Secretory IgA is the main antibody present in mucous secretions and other secretions like tears and saliva.

8. Which of the following antibody first reaches the site of infection?
a) IgA
b) IgE
c) IgG
d) IgM

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] IgM which is produced by B cells appears in response to the initial exposure to antigen.

9. Where do T-lymphocytes develop into fully competent but not activated T-cells?
a) The thymus gland
b) The lymph nodes
c) The thyroid gland
d) The bone marrow

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] T cells are called so because they mature in the thymus gland.

10. Which of the following is true?
a) Most of the antibodies recognize small organic molecules
b) Most of the antibodies recognize proteins
c) Monoclonal antibodies produced in the laboratory lack the constant regions of IgG
d) IgM is a pentamer with 10 antigen binding sites

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Antibodies can recognize proteins like antigens.

11. IgG consists of
a) A light chain and two heavy chains joined by disulfide bond
b) Two light chains and a heavy chain joined by disulfide bond
c) Two light chains and two heavy chains joined by disulfide bond
d) Two light chains and two heavy chains joined by hydrogen bond

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] IgG consists of 2 subunits including 2 heavy chains and 2 light chains.

12. Which of the following is a true statement?
a) IgG is involved in primary immune response
b) IgM is involved in primary immune response
c) IgG is involved only in secondary immune response
d) IgG and IgM both are involved in primary immune response

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] IgG and IgM are involved in primary immune response.

13. The primary antibody of exocrine secretions is
a) IgA
b) IgE
c) IgG
d) IgM

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] IgA occurs in exocrine secretions and defends against bacteria cells and viruses.

14. Which of the following is not a feature of secondary immune respone to an antigen when compared to the first immune response to the same antigen?
a) Antibody is generated without T-cell help
b) Antibody is generated fast
c) Antibody produced has greater affinity for the antigen
d) Much antibody is produced

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The features of secondary immune response are: More antibodies are generated and the generation is fast. Antibody produced has greater affinity for the antigen.

15. Which of the following presents antigenic peptide to T-cells in order to initiate an adaptive immune response?
a) Plasma cell
b) Dendrite cell
c) Neutrophil
d) Epithelial cell

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Plasma cell is a fully differentiated B cell that produces antibody.

Set 2

1. The deficiency of which of the following enzyme leads to galactosemia?
a) Galactokinase
b) Pyruvate kinase
c) PFK-1
d) PFK-2

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] In galactokinase deficiency galactosemia, high galactose concentrations are found in blood and urine.

2. The conversion of which of the following involves two nucleotide derivatives?
a) Galactose 1-phosphate to glucose 1-phosphate
b) Galactose 1-phosphate to fructose 1-phosphate
c) Fructose 1-phosphate to glucose 1-phosphate
d) Lactose 1-phosphate to glucose 1-phosphate

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The conversion of galactose 1-phosphate to glucose 1-phosphate involves two nucleotide derivatives: UDP-galactose and UDP-glucose.

3. Which of the following enzyme is responsible for the conversion of glucose 1-phosphate to glucose 6-phosphate?
a) Glycogen phosphorylase
b) Isomerase
c) Phosphoglucomutase
d) Epimerase

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Phosphoglucomutase converts the glucose 1-phosphate to glucose 6-phosphate, which can enter glycolysis.

4. The product formed in the isomerization of mannose 6-phosphate
a) Fructose 6-phosphate
b) Glucose 6-phosphate
c) 2-phosphoglycerate
d) 3-phosphoglycerate

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Mannose 6-phosphate is isomerized by phosphomannose isomerase to yield fructose 6-phosphate.

5. Which of the following enzyme is present in saliva?
a) Hexokinase
b) Alpha amylase
c) Fructokinase
d) Triose kinase

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Digestion begins in the mouth, where salivary alpha amylase hydrolyses starch to sucrose.

6. Which of the following conversions is not catalyzed by hexokinase?
a) D-Glucose to glucose 6-phosphate
b) D-Fructose to fructose 6-phosphate
c) D-Mannose to mannose 6-phosphate
d) D-Fructose to fructose 1-phosphate

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Conversion of D-Fructose to fructose 1-phosphate is catalyzed by fructokinase.

7. Hydrolysis of lactose yields
a) D-galactose and D-glucose
b) D-glucose and D-glucose
c) D-galactose and D-fructose
d) D-fructose and D-glucose

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Hydrolysis of lactose yields D-galactose and D-glucose.

8. Hydrolysis of sucrose yields
a) D-galactose and D-glucose
b) D-glucose and D-glucose
c) D-galactose and D-fructose
d) D-fructose and D-glucose

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Hydrolysis of sucrose yields D-fructose and D-glucose.

9. Maltose hydrolysis yields
a) D-galactose and D-glucose
b) 2-Dglucose
c) n-Dglucose
d) 2-Dfructose

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Maltose hydrolysis yields 2-Dglucose.

10. Dextrin hydrolysis yields
a) D-galactose and D-glucose
b) 2-Dglucose
c) n-Dglucose
d) 2-Dfructose

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Dextrin hydrolysis yields n-Dglucose.

Set 3

1. Which can act as buffer?
a) NH4 Cl + HCl
b) CH3 COOH + H2 CO3
c) 40ml of 0.1M NaCN + 20ml of 0.1M HCN
d) NaCl + NaOH

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] It is a mixture of weak acid and its salt with strong base.

2. Calculate the pH of a mixture of 0.10M acetic acid and 0.20M sodium acetate. The pKa of acetic acid is 4.76.
a) 5.1
b) 4.1
c) 6.1
d) 7.1

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] pH = pKa + log [acetate]/[acetic acid] = 4.76 + log (0.2/0.1) = 4.76 + 0.30 = 5.1.

3. Calculate the pKa of lactic acid, given that when the concentration of lactic acid is 0.010M and the concentration of lactate is 0.087M, the pH is 4.80.
a) 4.0
b) 3.9
c) 3.3
d) 4.1

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] pH = pKa + log [lactate]/[lactic acid] pKa = pH – log [lactate]/[lactic acid] = 4.80 – log (0.087/0.010) = 4.80 – log 8.7 = 3.9.

4. Calculate the ratio of the concentrations of acetate and acetic acid required in a buffer system of pH 5.30.
a) 3.2
b) 3.3
c) 3.4
d) 3.5

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] pH = pKa + log [acetate]/[acetic acid] log [acetate]/[acetic acid] = pH – pKa = 5.30 – 4.76 = 0.54 [acetate]/ [acetic acid] = antilog 0.54 = 3.5.

5. Assertion A: pH of a buffer solution solution does not change on dilution.
Reason R: On dilution the ration of concentration of salt and acid (or base) remains unchanged.
a) A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of A
b) A and R are true, R is not correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] On dilution pH of buffer solution remains unchanged because the ratio of concentration of salt and acid (or base) remains unchanged.

6. Which of the following mixture in aqueous solution of equimolar concentration acts as a buffer solution?
a) HNO3 + NaOH
b) H2 SO4 + KOH
c) NH4 OH(excess) + HCl
d) CH3 COOH + NaOH(excess)

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] NH4 OH(excess) + HCl → NH4 Cl + H2 O So the mixture contains NH4 OH + NH4 Cl.

7. 1M NaCl and 1M HCl are present in an aqueous solution. The solution is
a) Not a buffer solution with pH < 7
b) Not a buffer solution with pH > 7
c) A buffer solution with pH < 7
d) A buffer solution with pH > 7

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] It is a neutral solution and its pH = 7.

8. For an acid buffer solution the pH is 3. The pH can be increased by
a) Increasing the concentration of salt
b) Increasing the concentration of acid
c) Decreasing the concentration of salt
d) Independent of concentration of acid & salt

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] An acid buffer is a mixture of weak acid and its salt with strong base, its pH increases by increasing the concentration of salt.

9. The buffer capacity is equal to
a) Δn / ΔpH
b) pH / Δn
c) ± 1pKa
d) ± 2pKa

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Buffer capacity = number of moles of acid or base added to 1 liter of buffer/change in pH.

10. Buffer capacity is maximum when
a) One mole of NH4 Cl is added to two moles of NH4 OH
b) One mole of NH4 Cl is added to one moles of NH4 OH
c) One mole of NH4 Cl is added to one mole of NaOH
d) One mole of NaCl is added to one mole of NaOH

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Buffer has more capacity when pH = pKa.

Set 4

1. Which out of the following statements is true about G-protein couple receptors?
a) The N-terminal chain is extracellular and C-terminal chain is intracellular
b) It contains 5 trans-membrane hydrophobic sections
c) There are more extracellular loops than intracellular loops
d) The binding region for G-protein involves 2 extracellular loops

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] GPCR is characterized by an extracellular N-terminus and an intracellular C-terminus.

2. Which of the following is not a G-protein coupled receptor?
a) Glycine receptor
b) Adrenergic receptor
c) Glutamate receptor
d) Muscarinic receptor

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Glycine receptor is a neurotransmitter but not a GPCR.

3. Protein kinase A is
a) Completely inhibited by cyclic AMP
b) Allosterically activated by cyclic AMP
c) Affected by cyclic AMP only under unusual circumstances
d) Activated by covalent binding of cyclic AMP

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Protein kinase A is activated when cAMP allosterically binds to a regulatory peptide.

4. Which out of the following is not involved in signal transduction by β-adrenergic receptor pathway?
a) GTP
b) ATP
c) cAMP
d) cGMP

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] cAMP is not involved in signal transduction by β-adrenergic receptor pathway.

5. Which of the following catalyzes the cutting of PIP2 into 2 moles of IP3 and diacylglycerol in cell signaling?
a) Phosphokinase C
b) Phospholipase C
c) Lipokinase
d) Phosphodiesterase C

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] PLC also named as phospholipase grabs onto PIP2 and cuts it into diacylglycerol and IP3.

6. The binding of ligands to many GPCRs leads to
a) Decrease in concentration of certain intracellular signal molecules called second messengers
b) Increase in concentration of certain intracellular signal molecules called second messengers
c) Decrease in concentration of certain extracellular signal molecules called first messengers
d) Increase in concentration of certain extracellular signal molecules called first messengers

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The binding of ligands to many GPCRs leads to decrease in concentration of second messengers.

7. A hormone or ligand can be considered as
a) First messenger
b) Second messenger
c) Third messenger
d) Fourth messenger

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Hormones are often considered to be first messengers, IP3, cAMP and cGMP are considered to be second messengers.

8. Which of the following serves as a neurotransmitter in adrenergic neurons?
a) Serotonin
b) Epinephrine
c) Dopamine
d) Histamine

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Adrenaline or epinephrine serves as a neurotransmitter in adrenergic neurons.

9. Which second messenger signals the release of Ca+2 from endoplasmic reticulum?
a) IP3
b) 1,2 diacyl glycerol
c) cAMP
d) cGMP

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] IP3 binds to the receptor present on endoplasmic reticulum causing it to release calcium ions.

10. GPCR is comprised of
a) 7 transmembrane helices
b) 8 transmembrane helices
c) 9 transmembrane helices
d) 10 transmembrane helices

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] GPCRs are 7 transmembrane domain receptors.

Set 5

1. Which of the following statements is true about transmembrane electrical potential?
a) The chemical gradient drives Cl and K+ inwards
b) The electrical gradient drives Na+ and Ca+2 inwards
c) The chemical gradient drives Na+ and Ca+2 inwards and K+ outward
d) The chemical gradient drives Cl and K+ outwards

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The chemical gradient drives Na+ and Ca+2 inwards and K+ outward, electrical gradient drives Cl.

2. Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor is an example of
a) Ligated gated receptor channel
b) Serpentine receptors
c) Adhesion receptors
d) Receptor enzymes

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor is an example of ligated gated receptor channel.

3. Which of the following are intracellular second messengers?
a) Acetylcholine
b) Glycine
c) IP3
d) Glutamate

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Inositol triphosphate together with diacylgycerol is a secondary messenger used in signal transduction and lipid signaling in cells.

4. The receptor channels for which of the following are gated by extracellular ligands?
a) Glycine
b) IP3
c) cAMP
d) cGMP

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The receptor channels for glycine are gated by extracellular ligands.

5. Which of the following statements is false about a ligand-gated ion channel receptor?
a) They are present in the cell membrane
b) They consist of five glycoproteins
c) Differences in membrane potential affect whether the channel receptors are open or close
d) Neurotransmitters can act as the chemical messengers for these channels

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Ligands affect whether the channel receptors are open or close in a ligand-gated ion channel whereas voltage gated ion channels are controlled by the differences in membrane potential affect.

6. Voltage regulation means
a) Na+/K+ pumps controls potential
b) Unless the voltage is regular gates will not respond
c) Oscilloscope only can control potential
d) With changes in the membrane potential voltage gated ion channels open and close

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] With changes in the membrane potential voltage gated ion channels open and close, this is regulation of voltage.

7. Depolarization and repolarization changes that occur during the action potential are produced by
a) Negative feedback loops
b) Carrier mediated transport
c) Simple diffusion of ions down their concentration gradient
d) Active transport pumps along the neuron membrane

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Na+ channels open at the beginning of action potential and moves into the axon causing depolarization, when K+ channels open repolarization takes place and moves out of the axon.

8. Diffusion of K+ out of the cell makes the inside of it less positive, or more negative and acts to restore the original resting membrane potential. This process is called
a) Repolarization
b) Depolarization
c) Hyperpolarization
d) Overshoot

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Diffusion of K+ out of the cell makes the inside of it less positive, or more negative and acts to restore the original resting membrane potential. This process is called repolarization.

9. Which of the following statements about action potential is false?
a) Na+/K+ pumps are directly involved in creating the action potential
b) Na+ and K+ concentrations are not significantly changed during an action potential
c) This includes both positive and negative feedback loops
d) Only a relatively small number of Na+ and K+ actually diffuse across the membrane

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The concentration of K+ is higher inside and concentration of Na+ is more outside.

10. Which out of the following is not a neurotransmitter?
a) Noadrenaline
b) Cyclic AMP
c) Dopamine
d) Acetyl choline

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Cyclic AMP is a secondary messenger molecule controlled by hormones and neurotransmitters.

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