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Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. Generally YAC contains how many elements?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Ori, selectable markers X and Y, 2 telomeres and 1 centromere.

2. Which of the following endonuclease removes a length of DNA between two telomere sequences?
a) EcoR1
b) EcoR2
c) BamHI
d) HindIII

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] BamHI removes a length of DNA between two telomere sequences.

3. In hybridization method, which of the following is pressed onto agar?
a) Silicon paper
b) Nitrocellulose paper
c) Filter paper
d) PVDF

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Nitrocellulose membrane has high binding capacity for proteins.

4. Which of the following temperature best suits for the growth and multiplication of transformed cells?
a) 35°C
b) 36°C
c) 37°C
d) 30°C

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] (37-43) °C is the temperature range preferred for the growth and multiplication of transformed cells.

5. Which of the following is a DNA element that instructs RNA polymerase where to bind on DNA?
a) Operator
b) Promoter
c) Enhancer
d) Hormone response element

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Promoter instructs RNA pol where to bind on DNA.

6. Site directed mutagenesis facilitated research on
a) Carbohydrates
b) Proteins
c) Lipids
d) Fats

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Site directed mutagenesis changes the amino acid sequence by altering DNA sequence of cloned gene. It facilitates research on proteins.

7. Recombinant DNA molecule is produced by ligating
a) Two DNA segments
b) Two m-RNA molecules
c) One m-RNA with one t-RNA
d) One m-RNA with DNA segment

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] For the construction of recombinant DNA molecule, two DNA segments are ligated.

8. Arrange the following steps involved in Gene cloning in the correct order
i) Isolation of desired gene
ii) Insertion of isolated gene to the vector
iii) Introduction of recombinant vector to the host
iv)Expression of recombinant gene in host
v) Extraction of recombinant gene product
a) i, ii, iii, iv, v
b) v, iv, iii, ii, i
c) i, iii, ii, iv, v
d) iv, v, ii, i, iii

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] i) Isolation of desired gene. ii) Insertion of isolated gene to the vector. iii) Introduction of recombinant vector to the host. iv)Expression of recombinant gene in host. v) Extraction of recombinant gene product.

9. Where does a restriction endonuclease cuts DNA?
a) Ligation site
b) Recognition sequence
c) Ori
d) Replication site

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Restriction enzymes cut DNA at specific sites called recognition sites.

10. Which of the following statements is true about a vector?
a) Plasmids, phages can be used as vectors
b) All vectors are plasmids
c) Cyanobacteria can also be used as vectors
d) Fungi can also be used as vectors

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Plasmids and phages can be used as vectors.

11. Which of the following is true about plasmids?
a) They are present in all organisms
b) They are present in bacteria only
c) They are present in bacteria and phages
d) They are present in plants and animals

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Plasmids cannot be found in animal cells. They are found only in bacteria and phages.

12. DNA Ligase, used in recombinant DNA technology is obtained from
a) E.coli only
b) E.coli and also Ligase encoded by T4 phage
c) Saccharomyces
d) Retroviruses

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Ligase obtained from Ecoli and T4 DNA ligase is used in recombinant DNA technology.

13. The main aim of human genome project is
a) To identify and sequence of all the genes present in the human body
b) To introduce new genes to human beings
c) To remove disease causing genes from humans
c) To improve techniques of finger printing

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The main aim of human genome project is to identify and sequence of all the genes present in the human body.

14. The work ‘Hybridization’ in DNA finger printing means
a) Pairing between the nucleotides of DNA sample with probe
b) Pairing between the nucleotides of DNA and mRNA
c) Pairing between the nucleotides of probe with mRNA
d) Pairing between the nucleosides with mRNA

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Hybridization involves annealing of DNA segment with its probe.

15. Agar is extracted from
a) Fungi
b) Bacteria
c) Algae
d) Virus

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Agar is obtained from an alga.

Set 2

1. Which of the following is false?
a) Heme consists of a complex organic ring structure, protoporphyrin
b) Protoporphyrin is bound to a single iron atom in its Fe+3 state
c) Iron atom has 6 coordination bonds
d) Heme is found in a number of oxygen transporting proteins

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Protoporphyrin is bound to a single iron atom in its Fe+2 state.

2. Myoglobin is particularly abundant in
a) Nerves
b) Muscles
c) Blood cells
d) Skin

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] As a transport protein, it facilitates O2 diffusion in muscle.

3. His93 is also called
a) His F8
b) His F7
c) His F6
d) His F5

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] His93, the 93rd amino acid residue from the amino-terminal end of the myoglobin polypeptide sequence is also called His F8, the 8th residue in α helix F.

4. Which of the following is a correct relation?
a) Ka [L] = [PL][P]
b) Ka [L] = [P][PL]
c) Ka [L] = [PL] × [P].
d) Ka [PL] = [L][P]

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The term Ka is an association constant Ka [L] = [PL][P] [L].

5. Which of the following is a correct relation?
a) Kd [L] = [PL][P]
b) Kd [L] = [P][PL]
c) Kd [L] = [PL] × [P].
d) Kd [PL] = [L][P]

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The term Kd is a dissociation constant b) Ka [L] = [P] [L][PL].

6. Myoglobin binding of O2 depends on
a) Hemoglobin concentration
b) O2 concentration and affinity of myoglobin for O2
c) Ka
d) Kd

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Myoglobin binding of O2 depends on pO2 and its affinity for O2 .

7. In the binding of oxygen to myoglobin, the relationship between the concentration of oxygen and the fraction of binding sites occupied can best be described as:
a) Hyperbolic
b) Linear with a negative slope
c) Linear with a positive slope
d) Parabolic

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The equation θ=(pO2 )/(pO2 +P5 0 ) is of the form y = x/(x+z) which describes hyperbola.

8. Myoglobin and the subunits of hemoglobin have:
a) Very different primary and tertiary structures
b) Very similar primary and tertiary structures
c) Very similar primary structures, but different tertiary structures
d) Very similar tertiary structures, but different primary structures

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Hemoglobin is a tetramer and myoglobin is a monomer.

9. The interactions of ligands with proteins are:
a) Relatively nonspecific
b) Relatively rare in biological systems
c) Usually irreversible
d) Usually transient

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The interactions of ligands with proteins are reversible and transient.

10. When oxygen binds to a heme-containing protein, the two open coordination bonds of Fe2+ are occupied by:
a) One O atom and one amino acid atom
b) One O2 molecule and one amino acid atom
c) One O2 molecule and one heme atom
d) Two O atoms

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The two coordination bonds to Fe2+ perpendicular to the porphyrin ring system. One of these bonds is occupied by a Hys residue and the other bond by O2 .

Set 3

1. Proto-oncogenes can be transformed to oncogenes by all of the following mechanisms except
a) Elimination of their start signals for translation
b) During a viral infection cycle
c) Chromosomal rearrangements
d) Chemically induced mutagenesis
e) Radiation induced mutation

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Elimination of their start signals cannot promote cancer.

2. Oncogenes do not encode for
a) Trans-membrane protein receptors
b) Growth factors
c) DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
d) Cytoplasmic G-proteins and protein kinases

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Oncogenes encode for RNA-dependent DNA polymerase.

3. Programmed cell death is termed as
a) Metastasis
b) Apoptosis
c) Proliferation
d) Mitotic termination

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Apoptosis can also be termed as programmed cell death.

4. Which of the following could be coded by a tumor-supressor gene?
a) A protein that helps prevent progression through cell cycle
b) A protein that helps prevent apoptosis
c) A protein that codes for a DNA repair enzyme
d) A protein that forms part of a growth factor signaling pathway

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] A protein that helps prevent progression through cell cycle could be coded by a tumor-supressor gene.

5. How does Ras oncogene contribute to cancers?
a) It codes for an anti-apoptotic protein, produced in abnormally large amounts
b) It codes for a GTPase switch protein, which in its mutated form cannot be switched off
c) It codes for a transcription factor produced abnormally in large amounts
d) A growth factor that is continually active is encoded in its truncated form

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Ras oncogene codes for a GTPase switch protein, which in its mutated form cannot be switched off.

6. Which property of p53 enables it to prevent the development of cancer?
a) It is a transcription factor that causes protein production which stimulates the cell cycle
b) It prevents replication of cells with damaged DNA
c) It prevents cells from triggering apoptosis
d) It stimulates synthesis of DNA repair enzymes that replace telomere sequence lost during cell division

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] p53 prevents replication of cells with damaged DNA.

7. The characteristic of malignant other than a benign tumor is
a) Undergoes metastasis
b) Develops blood supply
c) Cell divides an unlimited number of times
d) Grows without needing a growth signal

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Only malignant tumor involves migration of cancerous cells from the site of origin to other areas.

8. The mutation which cannot give rise to an oncogene
a) Addition or deletion of a base producing a nonsense message and an inactive protein product
b) A point mutation changing just one amino acid in protein product
c) A translocation, putting gene under control of strong promoter producing over expression
d) A point mutation producing stop codon, premature termination

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Addition or deletion of a base producing a nonsense message and an inactive protein product cannot produce an oncogene.

9. Which of the following about Rb tumor suppressor protein is correct?
a) It binds E2F transcription factor and prevents cell from entering S phase until a mitogenic signal is received
b) It is activated when phosphorylated by Cdk
c) It is a transcription factor
d) When a mitogenic signal is received, it binds the transcription factor E2F and thus stimulates the cell to enter S phase

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Rb protein binds E2F transcription factor and prevents cell from entering S phase until a mitogenic signal is received.

10. Migration of cancerous cells from the site of origin to other part of the body forming secondary tumors is called
a) Diapedesis
b) Metastasis
c) Proliferation
d) Apoptosis

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Metastasis can be defined as migration of cancerous cells from the site of origin to other part of the body forming secondary tumors.

Set 4

1. Identify the amino acids containing nonpolar, aliphatic R groups
a) Phenylalanine, tyrosine, and tryptophan
b) Glycine, alanine, leucine
c) Lysine, arginine, histidine
d) Serine, threonine, cysteine

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Glycine: H3 N+ – CH2 – COO Alanine: H3 N+ – CH(CH3) – COO Leucine: H3 N+ – CH(C4 H9) – COO.

2. The two amino acids having R groups with a negative net charge at pH 7.0 are
a) Aspartate and glutamate
b) Arginine and histidine
c) Cysteine and methionine
d) Proline and valine

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Aspartate: H3 N+ – CH( CH2 COO ) – COO Glutamate: H3 N+ – CH( C2 H4 COO ) – COO.

3. If pK1 = 2.34 and pK2 = 9.60, then the isoelectric point pI is
a) 5.87
b) 5.97
c) 3.67
d) 11.94

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] pI = 12 (pK1 + pK2 ) = 12 (2.34 + 9.60) = 5.97.

4. Which of the following is a true statement?
a) Tryptophan and tyrosine are significantly more polar than phenylalanine
b) Leucine is commonly used as an ingredient in the buffers of SDS page
c) Aspartate is an essential amino acid
d) Lysine is a non-essential amino acid

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Tryptophan and tyrosine are significantly more polar than phenylalanine because of the tyrosine hydroxyl group and the nitrogen of the tryptophan indole ring.

5. Which among the following is a non-essential amino acid?
a) Serine
b) Threonine
c) Lysine
d) Histidine

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Serine is one of the 11 non-essential amino acids.

6. Which of the following is an essential amino acid?
a) Cysteine
b) Asparagine
c) Glutamine
d) Phenylalanine

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Phenylalanine is one of the 9 essential amino acids.

7. Which of the following is an imino acid?
a) Alanine
b) Glycine
c) Proline
d) Serine

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Proline is secondary amino acid also called as an imino acid as it contains –C = NH – OH group.

8. Which among the following is both glucogenic and ketogenic?
a) Isoleucine
b) Leucine
c) Lysine
d) Histidine

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Isoleucine produces both glucose and ketone bodies as an energy source.

9. An amino acid that yields acetoacetyl CoA during the catabolism of its carbon skeleton will be considered
a) Glycogenic
b) Ketogenic
c) Both glycogenic and ketogenic
d) Essential

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] In case of Glycogenic amino acids pyruvate metabolites are formed and in case of ketogenic amino acids acetoacyl CoA is formed during the catabolism.

10. Number of chiral centers in isoleucine is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] H5 C2 – C ̇H(CH3 )- C ̇H(NH2 ) – COOH The structure clearly shows two chiral centers of isoleucine.

Set 5

1. Flux control coefficient measures the
a) Steady state change
b) pH change
c) Temperature change
d) Hormonal change

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Flux control coefficient relatively measures of how much a perturbation affects a system variable flux.

2. What is the relation between elasticity coefficient, flux coefficient and response coefficient?
a) R = C.ε
b) R = Cε
c) R = εC
d) ε = C.R

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] R = C.ε, where R=response coefficient, C = flux coefficient and ε=elasticity coefficient.

3. Which of the following is a measure of the effect of an enzyme’s concentration on flux through a multi-enzyme pathway?
a) Response coefficient
b) Elasticity coefficient
c) Flux control coefficient
d) Metabolic control

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Elasticity coefficient is a measure of how responsive the enzyme is to changes in the concentration of a metabolite. An expression for the experimentally determined change in flux through a pathway in response to a regulatory hormone or second messenger is response coefficient.

4. Which of the following is a measure of how responsive the enzyme is to changes in the concentration of a metabolite?
a) Response coefficient
b) Elasticity coefficient
c) Flux control coefficient
d) Metabolic control

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Flux control coefficient is a measure of the effect of an enzyme’s concentration on flux through a multi-enzyme pathway. An expression for the experimentally determined change in flux through a pathway in response to a regulatory hormone or second messenger is response coefficient.

5. An expression for the experimentally determined change in flux through a pathway in response to a regulatory hormone or second messenger
a) Response coefficient
b) Elasticity coefficient
c) Flux control coefficient
d) Metabolic control

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Flux control coefficient is a measure of the effect of an enzyme’s concentration on flux through a multi-enzyme pathway. Elasticity coefficient is a measure of how responsive the enzyme is to changes in the concentration of a metabolite.

6. Which of the following statements about the control of glycogen synthesis from blood glucose in myocytes is incorrect?
a) Insulin affects three of five steps in this pathway
b) The effects on transport and hexokinase activity increase the flux towards glycogen
c) The change in glycogen synthase activity increases the flux towards glycogen
d) Hexokinase enzyme is involved

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The change in glycogen synthase activity decreases the flux towards glycogen.

7. Some regulated enzymes control the flux through a pathway, this activity is
a) Regulation
b) Control
c) Metabolism
d) Anabolism

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Some regulated enzymes control the flux through a pathway, this activity is control.

8. Some regulated enzymes rebalance the level of metabolites in response to the change in flux, this activity is
a) Regulation
b) Control
c) Metabolism
d) Anabolism

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Some regulated enzymes rebalance the level of metabolites in response to the change in flux, this activity is regulation.

9. Metabolic control analysis does not suggests that
a) When the blood glucose level rises, insulin acts in muscle to increase glucose transport into cells by bringing GLUT4 to the plasma membrane
b) When the blood glucose level rises, insulin acts in muscle to induce the synthesis of PFK-1
c) When the blood glucose level rises, insulin acts in muscle to activate glycogen synthase by covalent alteration
d) When the blood glucose level rises, insulin acts in muscle to induce the synthesis of hexokinase

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] When the blood glucose level rises, insulin acts in muscle to induce the synthesis of hexokinase.

10. Which of the following is the most influential in setting the flux through glycolysis?
a) Hexokinase
b) PFK-1
c) PFK-2
d) Both hexokinase and PFK-1

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The real role of PFK-1 regulation is not to control flux through glycolysis but to mediate metabolite homeostasis.