Multiple choice question for engineering
1. Which of the following is true regarding taking up of plasmid DNA in the bacterial cells?
a) There are more chances of having two plasmids in a single cell
b) There are more chances of having a single plasmid in one cell
c) Uptake upto two plasmids is possible but not more than that
d) Both are taken up with the same efficiency
2. If genomic DNA has been inserted instead of the plasmid, what will happen?
a) It would lead to inactivation of lacZ gene
b) The X-gal substrate would be broken down
c) The colonies formed are blue in colour
d) The lacZ gene would be intact
3. Often PCR can be performed in order to confirm whether an insert is present in the plasmid. Cells are taken directly and PCR is performed, this type of PCR is known as:
a) direct PCR
b) colony PCR
c) quantitative PCR
d) in-situ PCR
4. Generation of recombinants by randomly cloning fragments of total DNA from an organism is called as:
a) genomic library
d) shotgun cloning
5. The phenomenon of alpha complementation is:
a) α + β = ω
b) α = β + ω
c) β = α + ω
d) It is either α + β = ω or β = α + ω
6. An operon is defined as:
a) A related set of genes each having different promoters and are present differently
b) A set of genes which are present together but are controlled by different promoters
c) A set of genes which are present together and are controlled by the same promoter
d) A set of genes which are not present together but controlled by the same promoter
7. Why the whole lacZ gene can’t be present in the plasmid at one time?
a) Because the whole lacZ gene can’t be present anywhere
b) The whole lac Z gene is very large in size and the plasmid size is small
c) The whole lacZ gene is never functional
d) Because the plasmid takes is having a restriction site only for taking up a portion of lacZ gene
8. Alpha complementation is an indicator of lacZ system. Which of the statement is incorrect for it?
a) One portion of the lacZ gene known as minigene is present in the plasmid
b) Another portion is present in the host itself
c) If they both are allowed to combine in the presence of IPTG, X-gal and ampicillin, blue colonies are observed
d) If insert is also present along with host and plasmid, it results in formation of blue colonies
1. Choose the incorrect statement for second DNA strand synthesis.
a) The RNA: DNA complex is treated with the enzyme RNaseH and DNA pol
b) The enzyme RNaseH is responsible for nicking the RNA strand and leaving free 3’ hydroxyl ends
c) These RNA fragments can be used as primers
d) There is no portion of RNA left attached to the DNA strand
2. What is the final product of the RNaseH method?
a) blunt ended dsDNA
b) staggered dsDNA at both ends
c) staggered dsDNA at 3’ end
d) staggered dsDNA at 5’ end
3. What would not happen if the RNA strand is completely removed from RNA: DNA hybrid?
a) There are no chances of the synthesis of second DNA strand
b) Chance complementarity would take place
c) Hairpin structure would be formed
d) Hairpin structure if formed is not the final structure
4. The loop region is single stranded. It can be cleaved by using which enzyme?
b) S1 nuclease
5. Choose the correct statement in respect to the self priming method of cDNA synthesis.
a) It is less preferred than RNaseH method
b) A hairpin structure is formed with guarantee
c) The sequence corresponding to the 5’ end is lost
d) Reverse transciptase is not used
6. Choose the incorrect statement for the method homopolymer tailing.
a) The first step is the RNA: DNA hybrid synthesis
b) Terminal transferase is used for addition of nucleotides on 3’ end
c) Terminal transferase adds only at DNA strands
d) The DNA strand is now having known sequence at 3’ end
7. Choose the correct statement for RACE.
a) It stands for Random Amplification of cDNA ends
b) It is for cloning particular cDNA ends
c) It is only of one type, which is 5’ RACE
d) Sequence data is not available in any case
8. The first primer in the case of 3’ RACE is:
a) internal sequence
b) oligo-dT adaptor molecule
c) oligo-dA adaptor molecule
d) adaptor oligo-dT primer
9. The first cDNA strand in 5’ RACE is tailed with oligo-dA tail. Is the given statement true or false?
10. What is the second primer in the case of 5’ RACE?
a) Internal primer
b) Oligo-dA sequence
c) Adaptor-oligo-dT primer
d) Oligo-dT adaptor molecule
1. If it is desirable to express two or more proteins simultaneously, then it is known as:
a) hybrid of proteins
b) fusion of proteins
c) co-expression of proteins
d) combination of proteins
2. For co-expression of proteins, it is possible to have several independent sets of promoters and other signals in a single vector. Is the given statement true or false?
3. A considerable amount of modification can take place in the ______ region of RNA in _______ before translation. It affects the yield of proteins.
a) coding, prokaryotes
b) coding, eukaryotes
c) non-coding, prokaryotes
d) non-coding, eukaryotes
4. Strong secondary structure in a message may affect ________
c) both translation and transcription
d) none of translation and transcription
5. What is the function of T7 lysozyme?
a) Attacking the peptidoglycan in bacterial cell walls
b) Inhibitor of T7 polymerase
c) Activator of T7 polymerase
d) Both attacking the peptidogylcan in bacterial cell walls and inhibitor of T7 polymerase
6. As the activity of T7 polymerase is reduced by lysosome, what is effect on the rate of synthesis after induction?
c) May increase or decrease
d) No effect
7. Proteins at times are not soluble in the cell and form aggregates known as:
b) aggregated mass
c) inclusion bodies
d) insoluble mass
8. It is not possible to solubilise proteins from aggregated mass of proteins. Is the given statement true or false?
9. Lon protease is used for degradation of foreign proteins in E.coli cells. It is active against which type of proteins?
a) Partially denatured proteins
b) Completely denatured proteins
c) Both partially and completely denatured proteins
d) Intact proteins
10. Lon mutation can lead to ______ and _______
a) mucoidy, UV sensitivity
b) mucoidy, UV insensitivity
c) overproduction of fats, UV sensitivity
d) overproduction of fats, UV insensitivity
11. Mutation in gale gene or cpsA-E gene cluster is used for:
a) suppression of mucoidy
b) activation of mucoidy
c) suppression of UV sensitivity
d) both suppression of mucoidy and UV sensitivity
1. Little quantities of radiolabelled proteins are required for which of the following?
a) co or post translational targeting
b) modification of proteins
c) both co or post translational targeting and modification of proteins
d) crystallization for structural studies
2. __________ quantities of _______ protein are required for determination of properties in biochemical and biological assays.
a) Small, non-radiolablled
b) Small, radiolabelled
c) Large, radiolablelled
d) Large, non-radiolabelled
3. Small quantities of radiolabelled RNA can be produced by translation in vitro which is done by transcription in vitro. Is the given statement true or false?
4. For production of unlabelled and huge amount of proteins, which of the following is true?
a) Transcription is carried out in vivo and translation in vitro
b) Transcription and translation both are carried out in vivo
c) Transcription and translation both are carried out in vitro
d) Transcription is carried out in vitro and translation in vivo
5. How many methods are there, which are used for protein synthesis in vitro?
6. Reticulocytes are immature red cells, which are obtained from:
7. What is the use of adding micrococcal nuclease in the reticulocyte cells?
a) It degrades DNA
b) It degrades mRNA
c) It degrades proteins
d) It degrades RNA and untranslated DNA
8. Treatment of reticulocyte cells is done with EGTA. It chelates the calcium ions which are required for functioning of micrococcal nuclease. Is the given statement true or false?
9. In ________ transcription and translation is coupled.
c) both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
d) both prokaryotes and eukaryotes, but favourable in eukaryotes
10. In which of the following systems, transcription and translation are carried out together?
a) Reticuloycte lysate
b) Wheat gram extract
c) Both in reticulocyte lysate and wheat gram extract
d) S-30 extract
1. The minor change in amino acid sequence can lead to _______ effect on three dimensional structure and there _____ in the primary sequence.
a) huge, may be no change
b) no, may be huge change
c) very less, is very less change
d) huge, would be huge change
2. It is often useful to inactivate endogenous genes in an organism. It might be helpful in finding out _________ role of the wild type gene.
3. The inactivation of endogenous genes may also be helpful in directing the expression of mutated gene in the absence of background expression of wild type gene. Is the given statement true or false?
4. How can mutant strains be produced?
a) In systematic mutagenesis programmes
b) In individual organisms
c) Both by individual organisms and systematic mutagenesis programmes
d) Apart from these two, other methods are also used
5. The principle of gene disruption is ________ to replace the endogenous chromosomal copy of a gene with __________
a) homologous recombination, inactivated gene
b) reciprocal translocation, inactivated gene
c) homologous recombination, activated gene
d) reciprocal translocation, activated gene
6. The gene to be disrupted is cloned and a selectable marker is inserted. What should be the effect of selectable marker?
a) It should have no effect on target gene
b) It should make the target gene non-functional
c) There is no restriction; it can be either functional or non-functional
d) It should improvise the chances of survival of target gene
7. The disrupted gene is excised from the vector and is inserted into the target organism. The excised gene should be in which form?
c) Either supercoiled or circular
8. Stable acquisition of the marker can take place only if a double crossover over the flanking sequence and their chromosomal counterparts causes the marker’s integration into the chromosome. Is the given statement true or false?
9. If ______ gene is there, the double crossover may leave ________ in the chromosome.
a) linear, functional copy
b) circular, functional copy
c) linear, a non-functional copy
d) circular, a non-functional copy
10. If the target organism contains more than one copy of the gene, what is the effect on these copies?
a) Only copy is disrupted
b) All the copies are disrupted
c) It is difficult to ensure that all the copies are disrupted
d) Only a specified number of copies are disrupted