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Objective Type Set
Online MCQ Assignment
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Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. The architecture of object-oriented software results in a series of layered subsystems that encapsulate collaborating classes.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] It is necessary to test an OO system at a variety of different levels in an effort to uncover errors that may occur as classes collaborate with one another and subsystems communicate across architectural layers.

2.The construction of object-oriented software begins with the creation of
a) design model
b) analysis model
c) code levels
d) both design and analysis model

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] It is due to the evolutionary nature of the OO software engineering paradigm, these models begin as relatively informal representations of system requirements and evolve into detailed models of classes, class connections and relationships, system design and allocation, and object design.

3. Which testing integrates the set of classes required to respond to one input or event for the system?
a) cluster testing
b) thread-based testing
c) use-based testing
d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Each thread is integrated and tested individually. Regression testing is applied to ensure that no side effects occur.

4. Which of the following is one of the steps in the integration testing of OO software?
a) cluster testing
b) thread-based testing
c) use-based testing
d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Here, a cluster of collaborating classes is exercised by designing test cases that attempt to uncover errors in the collaborations.

5. __________ methods can be used to drive validations tests
a) Yellow-box testing
b) Black-box testing
c) White-box testing
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Black-box testing methods are as appropriate for OO systems as they are for systems developed using conventional software engineering methods.

6. Which of the following is a part of testing OO code?
a) Validation tests
b) Integration tests
c) Class tests
d) System tests

View Answer

Answer: c

7. The object of ___________within an OO system is to design tests that have a high likelihood of uncovering plausible bugs.
a) Fault-based testing
b) Integration testing
c) Use-based testing
d) Scenario-based testing

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The object of fault-based testing within an OO system is to design tests that have a high likelihood of uncovering plausible faults.

8. What refers to the externally observable structure of an OO program?
a) Deep structure
b) Surface structure
c) Core structure
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Surface structure refers to the externally observable structure of an OO program which is immediately obvious to an end-user.

9. _____________ categorizes class operations based on the generic function that each performs.
a) Category-based partitioning
b) Attribute-based partitioning
c) State-based partitioning
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] For example, operations in the account class can be categorized in initialization operations (open, setup), computational operations (deposit,withdraw) etc.

10. Which of the following is black-box oriented and can be accomplished by applying the same black-box methods discussed for conventional software?
a) Conventional testing
b) OO system validation testing
c) Test case design
d) Both Conventional testing and OO system validation testing

View Answer

Answer: d

11. In which of the following testing strategies, a smallest testable unit is the encapsulated class or object?
a) Unit testing
b) Integration testing
c) System testing
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a

12. Which of the following testing types is not a part of system testing?
a) Recovery testing
b) Stress testing
c) System testing
d) Random testing

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] It is a testing method at class level.

Set 2

1. “Robustness” answers which of the following description?
a) CASE tools be used to support the process activities
b) Process errors are avoided or trapped before they result in product errors
c) Defined process is acceptable and usable by the engineers responsible for producing the software
d) Process continues in spite of unexpected problems

View Answer

Answer: d

2. Process improvement is the set of activities, methods, and transformations that developers use to develop and maintain information systems.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The definition is of a system development process.

3. “Understandability” answers which of the following description?
a) The extent to which the process is explicitly defined
b) Process errors are avoided or trapped before they result in product errors
c) Defined process is acceptable and usable by the engineers responsible for producing the software product
d) Process continues in spite of unexpected problems

View Answer

Answer: a

4. How many stages are there in process improvement?
a) three
b) four
c) five
d) six

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Process measurement, analysis and change are the three stages.

5. In which stage of process improvement bottlenecks and weaknesses are identified?
a) Process measurement
b) Process analysis
c) Process change
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] In Process analysis the current process is assessed and bottlenecks and weaknesses are identified.

6. Prototypes and 4GL business systems are categorized under which process?
a) Informal
b) Managed
c) Methodical
d) Supported

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Here the development team chose their own way of working.

7. The documentation of a process which records the tasks, the roles and the entities used is called
a) Process metric
b) Process analysis
c) Process modelling
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Process models may be presented from different perspectives.

8. It is always best to start process analysis with a new test model.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] It is always best to start process analysis with an existing model. People then may extend and change this.

9. What is a tangible output of an activity that is predicted in a project plan?
a) Deliverable
b) Activity
c) Condition
d) Process

View Answer

Answer: a

10. What is often undefined and is left to the ingenuity of the project managers and engineers?
a) Role
b) Exception
c) Activity
d) Process

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Exceptions are often undefined and it is left to the ingenuity of the project managers and engineers to handle the exception.

11. Which of the following is not a part of process change?
a) Introducing new practices, methods or processes
b) Introducing new team members to existing project
c) Introducing or removing deliverable
d) Introducing new roles or responsibilities

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Adding more developers aid to process completion rather than changing it.

12. The Capability Maturity Model (CMM) is a continuous model.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The CMM is discrete rather than continuous.

13. The CMMI assessment is based on a x-point scale. What is the value of x?
a) 0
b) 2
c) 4
d) 6

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Not performed, performed, managed, defined, quantitatively managed, and optimizing are the six points.

Set 3

1. Which of the following is not project management goal?
a) Keeping overall costs within budget
b) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
d) Avoiding costumer complaints

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Projects need to be managed because professional software engineering is always subject to organizational budget and schedule constraints.

2. Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Risk management involves anticipating risks that might affect the project schedule or the quality of the software being developed, and then taking action to avoid these risks.

3. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?
a) Specification delays
b) Product competition
c) Testing
d) Staff turnover

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Testing is a part of project, thus it can’t be categorized as risk.

4. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as
a) Project Management
b) Manager life cycle
c) Project Management Life Cycle
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] A proven methodical life cycle is necessary to repeatedly implement and manage projects successfully.

5. A 66.6% risk is considered as
a) very low
b) low
c) moderate
d) high

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The probability of the risk might be assessed as very low (<10%), low (10–25%), moderate (25–50%), high (50–75%), or very high (>75%).

6. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing the costs of a software development project?
a) travel and training costs
b) hardware and software costs
c) effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
d) all of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Estimation involves working out how much effort is required to complete each activity and, from this, calculating the total cost of activities.

7. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for
a) team
b) project
c) customers
d) project manager

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The quality plan should set out the desired software qualities and describe how these are to be assessed.

8. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of a software system?
a) Internship management
b) Change management
c) Version management
d) System management

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Configuration management policies and processes define how to record and process proposed system changes, how to decide what system components to change, how to manage different versions of the system and its components, and how to distribute changes to customers.

9. Identify the sub-process of process improvement
a) Process introduction
b) Process analysis
c) De-processification
d) Process distribution

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The current process is assessed, and process weaknesses and bottlenecks are identified.

10. An independent relationship must exist between the attribute that can be measured and the external quality attribute.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The value of the quality attribute must be related, in some way, to the value of the attribute than can be measured.

Set 4

1. Which of the following is an important factor that can affect the accuracy and efficacy of estimates?
a) Project size
b) Planning process
c) Project complexity
d) Degree of structural uncertainty

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] As size increases, the inter-dependency among various elements of the software grows rapidly.

2. What describes the data and control to be processed?
a) Planning process
b) Software scope
c) External hardware
d) Project complexity

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Functions described in the statement of scope are evaluated and in some cases refined to provide more detail prior to the beginning of estimation.

3. A number of independent investigators have developed a team-oriented approach to requirements gathering that can be applied to establish the scope of a project called
a) JAD
b) CLASS
c) FAST
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Facilitated application specification techniques (FAST), this approach encourages the creation of a joint team of customers and developers who work together to identify the problem, propose elements of the solution, negotiate different approaches, and specify a preliminary set of requirements.

4. CLSS stands for
a) conveyor line sorting system
b) conveyor line sorting software
c) conveyor line sorting speed
d) conveyor line sorting specification

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The conveyor line sorting system (CLSS) sorts boxes moving along a conveyor line. Each box is identified by a bar code that contains a part number and is sorted into one of six bins at the end of the line.

5. The project planner examines the statement of scope and extracts all important software functions which is known as
a) Association
b) Decomposition
c) Planning process
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b

6. The environment that supports the software project is called
a) CLSS
b) SEE
c) FAST
d) CBSE

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Software engineering environment (SEE), incorporates hardware and software.

7. Which of the following is not an option to achieve reliable cost and effort estimate?
a) Base estimates on similar projects that have already been completed
b) Use one or more empirical models for software cost and effort estimation
c) Use relatively simple decomposition techniques to generate project cost and effort estimates
d) The ability to translate the size estimate into human effort, calendar time, and dollars

View Answer

Answer: d

8. What can be used to complement decomposition techniques and offer a potentially valuable estimation approach in their own right?
a) Automated estimation tools
b) Empirical estimation models
c) Decomposition techniques
d) Both Automated estimation tools and Empirical estimation models

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] An estimation model for computer software uses empirically derived formulas to predict effort as a function of LOC or FP.

9. Which of the following is not achieved by an automated estimation tools?
a) Predicting staffing levels
b) Predicting software cost
c) Predicting software schedules
d) Predicting clients demands

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Demands can vary from client to client.

10. Software project estimation can never be an exact science, but a combination of good historical data and systematic techniques can improve estimation accuracy.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Set 5

1. Which of the following is the reason that software is delivered late?
a) Changing customer requirements that are not reflected in schedule changes
b) Technical difficulties that could not have been foreseen in advance
c) Human difficulties that could not have been foreseen in advance
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d

2. Which of the following is an activity that distributes estimated effort across the planned project duration by allocating the effort to specific software engineering tasks?
a) Software Macroscopic schedule
b) Software Project scheduling
c) Software Detailed schedule
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b

3. Every task that is scheduled should be assigned to a specific team member is termed as
a) Compartmentalization
b) Defined milestones
c) Defined responsibilities
d) Defined outcomes

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] These responsibilities are domain specific.

4. What is a collection of software engineering work tasks, milestones, and deliverables that must be accomplished to complete a particular project?
a) Task set
b) Degree of milestone
c) Adaptation criteria
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a

5. Ensuring that no more than the allocated number of people are allocated at any given time in Software Scheduling is known as
a) Time Allocation
b) Effort Validation
c) Defined Milestone
d) Effort Distribution

View Answer

Answer: b

6. What is used to determine the recommended degree of rigor with which the software process should be applied on a project?
a) Degree of Rigor
b) Adaptation criteria
c) Task Set
d) Both degree of Rigor and adaptation criteria

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Four different degrees of rigor are: casual, structured, strict, and quick reaction.

7. What evaluates the risk associated with the technology to be implemented as part of project scope?
a) Concept scoping
b) Preliminary concept planning
c) Technology risk assessment
d) Customer reaction to the concept

View Answer

Answer: b

8. Which of the following is not an adaptation criteria for software projects?
a) Size of the project
b) Customers Complaints
c) Project staff
d) Mission criticality

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] These can vary from client to client.

9. Which of the following is a project scheduling method that can be applied to software development?
a) PERT
b) CPM
c) CMM
d) Both PERT and CPM

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Program evaluation and review technique (PERT) and critical path method (CPM) are two project scheduling methods that can be applied to software development.

10. A technique for performing quantitative analysis of progress is known as
a) BCWS
b) EVA
c) BAC
d) CBSE

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The earned value system provides a common value scale for every task, regardless of the type of work being performed. The total hours to do the whole project are estimated, and every task is given an earned value based on its estimated percentage of the total.

11. What is the recommended distribution of effort for a project?
a) 40-20-40
b) 50-20-30
c) 30-40-30
d) 50-30-20

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] A recommended distribution of effort across the software process is 40% (analysis and design), 20% (coding), and 40% (testing)‏.

12. A project usually has a timeline chart which was developed by
a) Henry Gantt
b) Barry Boehm
c) Ivar Jacabson
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Timeline chart, also called a Gantt chart was invented by Henry Gantt, an industrial engineer in 1917 .