Database MCQ Set 1
1. What is the use of Library cache?
a) Contains User information, such as user privileges
b) Used to store shared SQL
c) Log of changes made to the database
d) All of the Mentioned
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] Oracle Library cache is like a data buffer cache, except that it is not for data, but a cache for SQL PL/SQL programs and Java classes.
2. Which processes is an instance made of Oracle?
a) Oracle background processes
b) Memory processes
c) Data processes
d) All of the Mentioned
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] Oracle creates a set of background processes for an instance to manage memory structure, asynchronously perform I/O to write data to disk, and do general maintenance tasks.
3. Which of the following segment is destroyed when the SQL statement is finished?
a) Data Segment
b) Object Segment
c) Temporary Segment
d) All of the Mentioned
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] After each block is formatted/finished, the new index keys are put in a sort (temporary) segment.
4. What is the use of an index?
a) Retrieve data more quickly and efficiently
b) Related data requires much less I/O overhead if accessed simultaneously
c) Simplify the user’s perception of data access
d) All of the Mentioned
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] Index is used for to perform the quick operation on the data.
5. Which of the following components comprise an Oracle architecture?
a) Database related background processes
b) Tablespaces
c) Datafiles
d) All of the Mentioned
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] Oracle architecture consists of DB process, Table space, Datafiles.
6. What is the use of extent in Oracle?
a) Stores user data within the database
b) Stores rollback information used when data must be rolled back
c) Minimize the amount of wasted (empty) storage
d) None of the Mentioned
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] An extent is a logical unit of database storage space allocation made up of a number of contiguous data blocks.
7. Which area of PGA stores binding variables and run-time buffers information?
a) SQL area
b) Private SQL area
c) Stack space
d) Session area
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] PGA (Program Global Area) is a non-shared memory region that contains data and control information exclusively for use by an Oracle process.The PGA is created by Oracle Database when an Oracle process is started.
8. The ______ contains a set of tables and views that Oracle uses as a reference to the database.
a) PGA
b) Library cache
c) Data dictionary
d) SGA
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] The data dictionary is structured in tables and views, just like other database data. All the data dictionary tables and views for a given database are stored in that database’s SYSTEM tablespace.
9. In Oracle, which of below are types of segments?
a) Permanent Segment
b) Object Segment
c) Data Segment
d) All of the Mentioned
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] Oracle has 4 type of data segment :1)data segments 2)index segments 3)rollback segments 4)temporary segments.
10. The redo log buffer and Shared pool are elements of?
a) PGA
b) Buffer cache
c) PGA and Buffer cache
d) SGA
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] SGA (System Global Area) contains Shared Pool, Database Buffer Cache, Java Pool, redo Log Buffer.
Database MCQ Set 2
1. A collection of data designed to be used by different people is called a/an
a) Organization
b) Database
c) Relationship
d) Schema
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] A collection of data designed to be used by different people is called a data base.
2. Which of the following is the oldest database model?
a) Relational
b) Deductive
c) Physical
d) Network
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] Network Model is the oldest database model.
3. Which of the following is the process of selecting the data storage and data access characteristics of the database?
a) Logical database design
b) Physical database design
c) Testing and performance tuning
d) Evaluation and selecting
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] Physical database design is the process of selecting the data storage and data access characteristics of the database.
4. The relationship between DEPARTMENT and EMPLOYEE is a
a) One-to-one relationship
b) One-to-many relationship
c) Many-to-many relationship
d) Many-to-one relationship
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] The relationship between DEPARTMENT and EMPLOYEE is a one-to-many relationship.
5. If the state of the database no longer reflects a real state of the world that the database is supposed to capture, then such a state is called
a) Consistent state
b) Inconsistent state
c) Durable state
d) Atomic state
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] If the state of the database no longer reflects a real state of the world that the database is supposed to capture, then such a state is called in consistent state.
6. When an entity instance must be a member of only one sub-type, it is which of the following?
a) Disjoint with total specialization
b) Disjoint with partial specialization
c) Overlap with total specialization
d) Overlap with partial specialization
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] GradStudent (_id_, name, gradStuff) UndergradStudent (_id_, name, underGradStuff) Professor (_id_, name) Teaches(_prof_id_, _stud_id_)
Considering that the relational database above is meant to represent total disjoint specialization, i.e. there is no table Student but rather two completely separate ones, when writing this in SQL in order to implement the database, how would I fetch the student id for the Teaches table? I cannot figure out how to make a foreign key from two different tables.
7. A supertype/subtype hierarchy is which of the following?
a) Each subtype has only one attribute
b) Each supertype has only one attribute
c) Each subtype has only one supertype
d) Each supertype has only one subtype
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] Two entities are of distinct types if they have no attributes in common. It is possible for entities to have both common and distinct attributes. If they have a common identifier (that is, a common primary key), they have a special supertype-subtype relationship: they are neither distinct nor the same.
8. Which of the following statements concerning business rules is true?
a) It should be complex
b) It should not be convertible to computer code
c) It may include restrictions
d) All of the Mentioned
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] It is used to define, deploy, execute, monitor and maintain the variety and complexity of decision logic that is used by operational systems within an organization or enterprise.
9. Use of a supertype/subtype relationship is necessary when which of the following exists?
a) An instance of a subtype participates in a relationship that is unique to that subtype
b) An instance of a subtype participates in a relationship that is the same as the other subtypes
c) Attributes apply to all of the instances of an entity type
d) No attributes apply to any of the instances of an entity type
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] Super-types and sub-types show hierarchy in the structure; graphs and trees show hierarchy in the data.
10. Which of the following is not one of the three ways to classify an action assertion?
a) Condition
b) Integrity Control
c) Authorization
d) Enabler
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] The CREATE ASSERTION statement names a new Constraint and defines the Constraint’s deferral mode, initial constraint check time and its CHECK search condition.
Database MCQ Set 3
1. In an E-R diagram an entity set is represent by a
a) Rectangle
b) Ellipse
c) Diamond box
d) Circle
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] Entity types represent sets of objects and are pictured by rectangular nodes.
2. A relational database developer refers to a record as
a) A criteria
b) A relation
c) A tuple
d) An attribute
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] A tuple is analogous to a record in non-relational databases.
3. The relational model feature is that there
a) is no need for primary key data
b) is much more data independence than some other database models
c) are explicit relationships among records
d) are tables with many dimensions
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] The relational model is the conceptual basis of relational databases. Proposed by E.F.Codd in 1969, it is a method of structuring data using relations, which are grid-like mathematical structures consisting of columns and rows.
4. E-R model uses this symbol to represent weak entity set ?
a) Dotted rectangle
b) Diamond
c) Doubly outlined rectangle
d) None of the Mentioned
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] A weak entity set is indicated by a doubly-outlined box.
5. Which of the following is record based logical model?
a) Network Model
b) Object oriented model
c) E-R Model
d) None of the Mentioned
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] The network model is a database model conceived as a flexible way of representing objects and their relationships.
6. A _____ normal form normalization will be needed where all attributes in a relation tuple are not functionally dependent only on the key attribute.
a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) Fourth
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] A database is in third normal form if it satisfies the following conditions:1)It is in second normal form. 2)There is no transitive functional dependency
7. Identify the criteria for designing database from the point of view of user
a) No redundancy
b) No inapplicable attributes
c) Uniformity in naming & definitions of the data items
d) All of the Mentioned
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] To designing database from the point of user view we need all the mentioned required.
8. The relational model is based on the concept that data is organized and stored in two-dimensional tables called _______
a) Fields
b) Records
c) Relations
d) Keys
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] In the context of a relational database, a row also called a record or tuple represents a single, implicitly structured data item in a table.
9. An aggregation association is drawn using which symbol:
a) a line which loops back onto the same table
b) small closed diamond at the end of a line connecting two tables
c) small open diamond at the end of a line connecting two tables
d) small triangle at the end of a line connecting the aggregated item and multiple component items
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] There are three primary inter-object relationships: association, aggregation, and composition. Using the right relationship line is important for placing implicit restrictions on the visibility and propagation of changes to the related classes, matter which play major role in reducing system complexity.
10. An n-array relationship is drawn using which symbol:
a) A diamond
b) A line with arrows showing direction
c) A line without arrows showing direction
d) A rectangle
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] When a single parent-child relationship exists, the relationship is called binary. All of the previous examples of relationships to this point have been binary relationships. However, when creating a data model, it is not uncommon to come across n-array relationships, the modeling name for relationships between two or more parent entities and a single child table.
Database MCQ Set 4
1. A BI reporting system does not _______
a) Create meaningful information
b) Deliver information to users on a timely basis
c) Use statistical procedures to predict future events
d) Use disparate data sources
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] Business intelligence (BI) is a technology-driven process for analyzing data and presenting actionable information.
2. The “curse of dimensionality” relates to which problem of using operational data for BI reporting?
a) Dirty data
b) Inconsistent data
c) Too much data
d) Non-integrated data
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] The curse of dimensionality refers to various phenomena that arise when analyzing and organizing data in high-dimensional spaces.
3. A report generated by a reporting system is delivered to the appropriate users via a user-accessed Web site. This system uses which of the following report modes?
a) Push
b) Pull
c) RFM
d) OLAP
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] The push-pull model to not allow mixed port type combinations for a connection, such as connecting a push output port to a pull input port, and a pull output port to a push input port.
4. Business Intelligence (BI) reporting systems cannot do which of the following operations?
a) Filter data
b) Group data
c) Modify data
d) Both filter and group data
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] Business intelligence (BI) is a technology-driven process for filter data and group information.
5. Which of the following is not a component of a data warehouse?
a) Data extraction/cleaning/preparation programs
b) Data warehouse data
c) Data metadata
d) None of the Mentioned
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] Data warehouse is not deal with the Data metadata.
6. Each answer below shows example data from a table. Which answer is an example of the general-purpose remarks column problem?
a) Three columns have the values 534-2435, 534-7867, and 546-2356 in the same row
b) Three rows have the values Brown Small Chair, Small Chair Brown, and Small Brown Chair in the same column
c) Three rows have the values Brown, NULL, and Blue in the same column
d) One row has the value “He is interested in a Silver Porsche from the years 1978-1988” in a column
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] Option d fullfill the condition of column.
7. The wildcard in a WHERE clause is useful when?
a) An exact match is necessary in a SELECT statement
b) An exact match is not possible in a SELECT statement
c) An exact match is necessary in a CREATE statement
d) An exact match is not possible in a CREATE statement
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] Wildcard useful only when an exact match is not possible in a SELECT statement.
8. The benefits of a standard relational language include which of the following ?
a) Reduced training costs
b) Increased dependence on a single vendor
c) Applications are not needed
d) All of the Mentioned
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:]Standard relational language gives the benefits of reducing the training costs.
9. Find the SQL statement below that is equal to the following: SELECT NAME FROM CUSTOMER WHERE STATE = ‘VA’;
a) SELECT NAME IN CUSTOMER WHERE STATE IN (‘VA’);
b) SELECT NAME IN CUSTOMER WHERE STATE = ‘VA’;
c) SELECT NAME IN CUSTOMER WHERE STATE = ‘V’;
d) SELECT NAME FROM CUSTOMER WHERE STATE IN (‘VA’);
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] Query d satisfy the condition mention in above.
10. There are two sessions currently connected to your database instance. In the first session, the following UPDATE statement is executed:
SQL> UPDATE dept SET deptno=80 WHERE dname='SALES';
The UPDATE statement above waits to complete the execution. Investigations reveal the following facts:
– The UPDATE statement is waiting to acquire a lock
– There is referential integrity constraint between the DEPT and EMP table
– Department number 30 represents the SALES department
– The EMP table is updated in the second session as follows:
SQL> UPDATE emp SET sal=sal*0.17 WHERE deptno=30;
Which action would you perform to avoid waiting in the first session ?
a) Drop any existing index on the EMP table
b) Drop any existing index on the DEPT table
c) Create an index on the deptno column of the EMP table
d) Create an index on the deptno column of the DEPT table
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] Creation index on the column will may increase the disk space requirements of your database and slow down dml (i.e. inserts, updates and deletes)also increase the maintenance requirements of your Oracle database,index may make your queries slower instead of faster.
Database MCQ Set 5
1. The Oracle environment of database is called as _____
a) Database Schema
b) Database Instances
c) Data Structure
d) All of the Mentioned
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] A database instance is a set of memory structures that manage database files.
2. Which is the smallest unit of storage in an Oracle database?
a) Data Block
b) Segment
c) Extent
d) Data File
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] The logical units of database space allocation are data blocks.
3. Collection of information stored in database at particular instance of time is called as ______
a) Instance of Database
b) Objects in Databases
c) Data structure
d) Database Schema
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] Oracle work on the instance basis, whatever the operation related to Oracle is only on instance level.
4. Oracle database’s design is also called as_______
a) Database Abstraction
b) Database Instance
c) Database Schema
d) None of the Mentioned
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] Oracle database’s design is done on the schema level.
5. What are the valid Oracle database schemas?
a) Logical Schema
b) Physical Schema
c) Logical and Physical Schema
d) None of the Mentioned
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] Oracle databases has two schema level logical and physical.
6. What do the schema objects comprise of?
a) Table
b) Index
c) Cluster
d) All of the Mentioned
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] Oracle database schema consists of Table, Index, Cluster.
7. Map entities, attributes and relations in Oracle is represented by_____
a) Conceptual Schema
b) Logical Schema
c) Physical Schema
d) All of the Mentioned
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] Logical schema model may have many-to-many relationships and also have objects like table, view, procedure etc.
8. Modification schema of oracle database in one level without affecting the schema in high level is called as _______
a) Data Migration
b) Data Isolation
c) Data Independence
d) Data Abstraction
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] Data Independence means changing internal level does not affect conceptual level.
9. A ___ is used to logically group data together
a) Database
b) Tablespace
c) Datafiles
d) Object
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] Oracle database consists of one or more logical storage units called tablespaces.
10. A _______ is a set of tables physically stored together as one table that shares a common column
a) Index
b) Object
c) Datafiles
d) Cluster
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] Cluster is a schema object that contains data from one or more tables, all of which have one or more columns in common.
Database MCQ Set 6
1. Oracle server configuration is dedicated for
a) One server process – Many user processes
b) Many server processes – One user process
c) One server process – One user process
d) Many server processes – Many user processes
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] Single-process Oracle is a database system in which all Oracle code is executed by one process. Different processes are not used to separate execution of the parts of Oracle and the client application program. Instead, all code of Oracle and the single user’s database application is executed by a single process.
2. What SYSTEM VARIABLE is used to refer DATABASE TIME ?
a) $$dbtime$$
b) $$time$$
c) $$datetime$$
d) None of the Mentioned
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] The DB time Oracle metric is the amount of elapsed time (in microseconds) spent performing Database user-level calls.
3. You notice that the database instance takes a long time to start up after the instance crash. How will you resolve the problem?
a) Increase the size of the redo log files
b) Decrease the number of redo log members
c) Set LOG_CHECKPOINT_TO_ALERT to TRUE
d) Decrease the value for the FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET initialization parameter
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET enables you to specify the number of seconds the database takes to perform crash recovery of a single instance.
FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET contains below information.
Property Description Parameter type :Integer Default value :0 Modifiable :ALTER SYSTEM Range of values :0 to 3600 seconds Basic :No Real Application Clusters :Multiple instances can have different values, and you can change the values at run-time.
4. Which statement is correct regarding undo management?
a) The database can have more than one undo tablespaces
b) The undo data must be purged manually when the transaction is over
c) The UNDO_TABLESPACE parameter is valid only if the UNDO_MANAGEMENT parameter is set AUTO OFF
d) Undo management is automatic by default even if the UNDO_MANAGEMENT initialization parameter is set to NULL
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] Oracle provides an automatic undo management, for managing undo information and space. With automatic undo management, the database manages undo segments in an undo table-space.
5. Which operations can be performed using the Data Recovery Ad-visor?
a) Diagnosing data failure
b) It is a percentage of rows in which the statistics are collected incrementally for partitions
c) Presenting appropriate repair options
d) Generating reports for possible causes of failure
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] The Data Recovery Ad-visor automatically diagnoses corruption or loss of persistent data on disk, determines the appropriate repair options, and executes repairs at the user’s request. This reduces the complexity of recovery process, thereby reducing the Mean Time To Recover (MTTR).
6. A user receives the following error while executing a query:
ORA-01555: snapshot too old
Predict one way to avoid such errors in near future.
a) Increase the size of redo log files
b) Increase the size of the undo tablespace
c) Increase the size of the Database Buffer Cache
d) Increase the size of the default temporary tablespace
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] The error occur because of size in the undo retention, can be overcome by increasing the size of your rollback segment (undo) size.Also can be resolve by increase the setting of UNDO_RETENTION. Otherwise, use larger rollback segments.
7. You want to be warned automatically when more than 100 sessions are opened with your database instance.Identify the action that would help you achieve this.
a) Set the TRACE_ENABLED parameter to TRUE
b) Set the threshold for the Current Logons Count metric
c) Set the LOG_CHECKPOINT_TO_ALERT parameter to TRUE
d) Set the SESSIONS_PER_USER limit in the profiles used by users
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] A metric is defined as the rate of change in some cumulative statistic. This rate can be measured against a variety of units, including time, transactions, or database calls. For example, the number database calls per second is a metric.
8. While the database instance is up and running, you receive an out-of-memory error due to the under-sizing of the shared pool. You checked the trace file and observed that the following error was always recorded during peak hours:
ORA-04031: unable to allocate 4000 bytes of shared memory
On investigation, you found that SGA_MAX_SIZE was larger than the sum of the sizes of all System Global Area (SGA) components and you do not have the scope to increase it further. Identify a solution to reduce the probability of getting this error in future.
a) Set the PRE_PAGE_SGA parameter to TRUE
b) Set the LOCK_SGA initialization parameter to TRUE
c) Implement Automatic Shared Memory Management
d) Set the SGA_TARGET initialization parameter to zero
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] Cause: More shared memory is needed than was allocated in the shared pool.Action : If the shared pool is out of memory, either use the DBMS_shared_pool package to pin large packages, reduce your use of shared memory, or increase the amount of available shared memory by increasing the value of the INIT.ORA parameters
9. You created a new user on the database by executing the following command:
SQL> CREATE USER user01 IDENTIFIED BY user01 DEFAULT TABLESPACE users TEMPORARY TABLESPACE temp; Then you granted the following privileges to user01 by executing the following command: SQL> GRANT CREATE SESSION, CREATE TABLE TO user01;
Which of the following is true in this scenario?
a) The user can not create tables
b) The user can create tables
c) The user cannot query any tables
d) None of the Mentioned
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] GRANT command give access to user.GRANT CREATE SESSION, CREATE TABLE TO user01 get the access for that session to create tables.
10. Examine the following settings for the initialization parameters:
MEMORY_MAX_TARGET=0 MEMORY_TARGET=500M SGA_TARGET=300M PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET=70M
Which statement is true about the memory management for the newly started database instance?
a) MEMORY_TARGET defines the maximum limit for SGA_TARGET
b) SGA_TARGET and PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET combined will never grow beyond 500M
c) The value for MEMORY_MAX_TARGET is the sum of SGA_TARGET and PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET
d) SGA_TARGET and PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET will keep growing till a maximum of 300M and 70M, respectively
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] In a text initialization parameter file, if you omit the line for MEMORY_MAX_TARGET and include a value for MEMORY_TARGET, the database automatically sets MEMORY_MAX_TARGET to the value of MEMORY_TARGET. If you omit the line for MEMORY_TARGET and include a value for MEMORY_MAX_TARGET, the MEMORY_TARGET parameter defaults to zero. After start-up, you can then dynamically change MEMORY_TARGET to a nonzero value, provided that it does not exceed the value of MEMORY_MAX_TARGET.
Database MCQ Set 7
1. A table is in BCNF if it is in 3NF and if every determinant is a _____ key.
a) Dependent
b) Normal
c) Candidate
d) Both Normal and Candidate
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] A table is in Boyce-Codd normal form (BCNF) if and only if it is in 3NF and every determinant is a candidate key.
2. The _____ normalization introduced by Chris Date, Hugh Darwen, and Nikos Lorentzos.
a) Third
b) Fourth
c) Fifth
d) Sixth
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] Chris Date, Hugh Darwen, and Nikos Lorentzos introduced Sixth Normal form (6NF).
3. A table is in 3NF if it is in 2NF and if it has no ______
a) Functional Dependencies
b) Transitive Dependencies
c) Trivial Functional Dependency
d) Multivalued Dependencies
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] For a relation to be in Third Normal Form, it must be in Second Normal form and the following must satisfy:No non-prime attribute is transitively dependent on prime key attribute For any non-trivial functional dependency, X -> A, then eitherX is a superkey or,A is prime attribute.
4. Every constraint on the table is a logical consequence of the table’s
a) Fourth normal form
b) Fifth normal form
c) Domain/key normal form
d) None of the Mentioned
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] A relation is in domain-key normal form (DK/NF) if every constraint on the relation is a logical consequence of the definition of keys and domains.
5. A _____ is an indirect functional dependency, one in which X->Z only by virtue of X->Y and Y->Z.
a) Multivalued Dependencies
b) Join Dependency
c) Trivial Functional Dependency
d) Transitive Dependencies
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] Third Normal Form deals with something called ‘transitive’ dependencies. This means if we have a primary key A and a non-key domain B and C where C is more dependent on B than A and B is directly dependent on A, then C can be considered transitively dependent on A.
6. In a given relationship R, if an attribute A uniquely defines all other attributes, then the attribute A is a key attribute which is also known as the ___ key.
a) Candidate
b) Join
c) Functional
d) None of the Mentioned
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] A candidate key is a column, or set of columns, in a table that can uniquely identify any database record without referring to any other data. Each table may have one or more candidate keys.
7. Anomalies are avoided by splitting the offending relation into multiple relations, is also known as
a) Accupressure
b) Decomposition
c) Precomposition
d) Both Decomposition and Precomposition
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] Eliminate redundancy by decomposing a relation into several relations in a higher normal form.
8. Every time attribute A appears, it is matched with the same value of attribute B, but not the same value of attribute C. Therefore, it is true that:
a) A -> B
b) A -> C
c) A -> (B,C)
d) (B,C) -> A
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] Transitivity rule: Same as transitive rule in algebra, if a -> b holds and b -> c holds then a -> c also hold. a -> b is called as a functionally determines b.
9. When the values in one or more attributes being used as a foreign key must exist in another set of one or more attributes in another table, we have created a(n):
a) Transitive Dependency
b) Insertion Anomaly
c) Referential Integrity Constraint
d) Normal Form
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] Referential Integrity is set of constraints applied to foreign key which prevents entering a row in child table for which you don’t have any corresponding row in parent table i.e. entering NULL or invalid foreign keys.
10. Which of the following is not a restriction for a table to be a relation?
a) The cells of the table must contain a single value
b) All of the entries in any column must be of the same kind
c) The columns must be ordered
d) No two rows in a table may be identical
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] To format the columns differently, assign a unique alias to each column within the SELECT command itself (do not use the ALIAS clause of the COLUMN command) and enter a COLUMN command for each column’s alias.