Q1. DBMS stands for:
(a) Database Managerial System
(b) Database Management System
(c) Database Management Source
(d) Development Management System
Answer: (b) Database Management System
Q2. Data processing is also known as
(a) Data programming
(b) Data access
(c) Information processing
(d) Database sourcing
Answer: (c) Information processing
Q3. DDL stands for
(a) Data Development Language
(b) Data Document Language
(c) Document Definition Language
(d) Data Definition Language
Answer: (d) Data Definition Language
Q4. —– provides fast access to data items that hold particular values.
Answer: Indices
Q5. Data is commonly used in both singular and —– forms.
Answer: plural
Q6. The term data and —– are closely related.
Answer: information
Q7. The primary mechanism for providing context for data is —–
Answer: Metadata
Q8. A —– is conceptually a table, but the records of this table are not stored in the database.
Answer: View
Q9. In DBMS the access programs are written independent of any specific —–
Answer: files
Q10. In file processing the data definition is part of the —– program.
Answer: application
Q11. —– first formulated and proposed in 1969 by Edgar Codd.
Answer: Relational model
Q12. Consistency is achieved by including declared constraints in the database design, which is usually referred to as the —–
Answer: logical schema
Q13 A —– is a set of attributes.
Answer: heading
Q14. A —– is an accepted visual representation of a relation.
Answer: table
Q15. —– is the term used in the theory for what is commonly referred to as a column.
Answer: attribute
Q16. —– is a special case “join” operator which considers the NULL values.
Answer: Outer joins
Q17. —– is a collection of facts, which is unorganized but can be made organized into useful information.
Answer: data
Q18. A recent development is the Object-Relation type-Object model, which is based on the assumption that any fact can be expressed in the form of one or more —–
Answer: binary relationships
Q19. A relation universe U over a header H is a non-empty set of relations with —–
Answer: header H
Q20. —– operator can be applied to only those relations that are union compatible.
Answer: Intersection
Q21. SQL stands for:
(a) Systematic Query Language
(b) Semantic Query Language
(c) Structured Query Language
(d) Structured Queue Language
Answer: (c) Structured Query Language
Q22. ANSI stands for:
(a) American National Standards Institute
(b) American National Systematic Institute
(c) American Nation Standards Institute
(d) Ahmedabad National Standards Institute
Answer: (a) American National Standards Institute
Q23. DML stands for:
(a) Document Manipulation Language
(b) Data Manipulation Language
(c) Data Maintain Language
(d) Database Manipulation Language
Answer: (b) Data Manipulation Language
Q24. —– can be used to create a table, index, or view.
Answer: data definition
Q25. The —– supported by SQL depend on the particular implementation.
Answer: data types
Q26. Database system has several schemas according to the level of —–
Answer: abstraction
Q27. —– keyword is used to specify a condition.
Answer: WHERE
Q28. The —– statement is used to insert or add a row of data into the table.
Answer: insert
Q29. The drop table command is used to delete a table and —– in the table.
Answer: all rows
Q30. Null means —–
Answer: nothing
Q31. You can combine different query blocks into a single query expression with the —–. operator.
Answer: union
Q32. A subquery is always a single query block —– that can contain other subqueries but cannot contain a UNION.
Answer: (Select)
Q33. A view can be dropped using a —– statement.
Answer: drop
Q34. —– are useful for security of data.
Answer: views
Q35. —– are used to query data from two or more tables, based on a relationship between certain columns in these tables.
Answer: SQL joins
Q36. An —– cannot be nested inside a Left Join or Right Join.
Answer: inner join
Q37. —– combines two tables based on their common columns.
Answer: Natural join
Q38. Subqueries are similar to SELECT —–
Answer: chaining
Q39. The —–. clause should follow the GROUP BY clause.
Answer: having
Q40. A query inside a query is called as —– query.
Answer: nested
Q41. —– ensure that changes made to the database by authorized users do not result in a loss of data consistency.
Answer: Integrity constraints
Q42. Setting a —– is appropriate when the actual value is unknown.
Answer: null value
Q43. A multicolumn primary key is called a —– primary key.
Answer: composite
Q44. The —– of the default value should match the data type of the column.
Answer: data type
Q45. By granting —– privileges to roles you can customize authorization for specific groups of people.
Answer: PL/SQL Developer
Q46. —– refers to the subgroup of SQL statements that controls access to database objects and data.
Answer: Data control language (DCL)
Q47. —– command is used for gives access privileges to users for database.
Answer: GRANT
Q48. The exact syntax for —– requests depends on the language in which SQL is embedded.
Answer: embedded SQL
Q49. A series of —– is executed to make tuples of the result available to the program.
Answer: fetch statements
Q50. Embedded SQL expressions for database modification (update, insert, and delete) —– a result.
Answer: don’t return
Q51. Relational calculus is an alternative to:
(a) Relational algebra
(b) Relational valuation
(c) Related query
(d) Relational calculation
Answer: (a) Relational algebra
Q52. QBE stands for
(a) Quick-by-Example
(b) Query-by-Example
(c) Queue-by-Example
(d) Query-by-Expansion
Answer: (b) Query-by-Example
Q53. A —– is a variable that takes on tuples of a particular relation schema a values.
Answer: tuple variable
Q54. A—– formula is defined in a manner that is very similar to the definition of a TRC formula.
Answer: DRC
Q55. The ER model is important for its role in —–
Answer: database design
Q56. —– represent entity sets.
Answer: Rectangles
Q57. An entity set attributes that does not have a primary key within them, is termed as a —– set.
Answer: weak entity
Q58. —– determine whether two subclasses are allowed to contain the same entity.
Answer: Overlap constraints
Q59. —– determine whether the entities in the subclasses collectively include all entities in the superclass.
Answer: Covering constraints
Q60. —– allows us to indicate that a relationship set participates in another relationship sets.
Answer: Aggregation
Q61. The relational model was proposed by —–
Answer: E. F. Codd
Q62. When a single constraint is established between two sets of attributes from the database it is called —–
Answer: functional dependency
Q63. The first concept of normalisation was proposed by Mr. Codd in —–
Answer: 1972
Q64. —– is defined using the concept of the join dependencies.
Answer: Project-Join Normal Form
Q65. Functional dependencies (FD) are type of constraint that is based on —–
Answer: keys
Q66. The weak entity has only a —– key.
Answer: partial
Q67. The —– is convenient for representing an initial, high-level database design.
Answer: ER model
Q68. An entity set is mapped to a relation in a —– way.
Answer: straightforward
Q69. A —– always participates in a one-to-many binary relationship and has a key constraint and total participation.
Answer: weak entity set
Q70. The —– is trivial since it results in no constraints being placed on the relation.
Answer: Multi Valued Dependencies
Q71. The fifth normal form deals with join-dependencies, which is a generalisation of the —–
Answer: MVD
Q72. Normalization is the process of refining the design of relational tables to minimize data —–
Answer: redundancy
Q73. —– is based on the concept of normal forms.
Answer: Normalization
Q74. The Third normal form resolves —– dependencies.
Answer: transitive
Q75. A —– arises when a non-key column is functionally dependent on another non-key column that in turn is functionally dependent on the primary key.
Answer: transitive dependency
Q76. —– provide a method for maintaining integrity in the data.
Answer: Foreign keys
Q77. A —– dependency occurs when in a relational table containing at least three columns.
Answer: Multivalued
Q78. The —– form is usually applied only for large relational data models.
Answer: Fifth Normal
Q79. Normal forms are table structures with —–
Answer: minimum redundancy
Q80. Normalization eliminates data maintenance anomalies, minimizes redundancy, and eliminates —–
Answer: data inconsistency
Q81. Database —– are the units in which programs read or write information.
Answer: ‘objects’
Q82. Once the DBMS informs the user that a transaction has been successfully completed, its effects should persist even if the system crashes before all its changes are reflected on disk known as —–
Answer: durability
Q83. —– is the initial state of a transaction.
Answer: Active state
Q84. —– state occurs after the discovery that normal execution can no longer proceed.
Answer: Failed
Q85. Transaction-processing systems usually allow multiple transactions to run concurrently (at the same time) known as —–
Answer: concurrent execution of transactions
Q86. Users are responsible for ensuring transaction —–
Answer: consistency
Q87. The —– locking protocol ensures serializability.
Answer: two-phase
Q88. —– protocols ensure that the system will never enter into a deadlock state.
Answer: Deadlock prevention
Q89. When a deadlock is detected, some transaction will have to be rolled back to break the —–
Answer: deadlock
Q90. A transaction is an execution of a user program and is seen by the DBMS as a —– or list of actions.
Answer: series
Q91. —– can be a part of only one generalization hierarchy.
Answer: Subtypes
Q92. A relational query language inspired by —–
Answer: Prolog
Q93. Each application of a Datalog rule can be understood in terms of —–
Answer: relational algebra
Q94. The —– semantics is thus operational and plays a role analogous to that of relational algebra semantics for non-recursive queries.
Answer: fixpoint
Q95. A model is a collection of relation —–
Answer: instances
Q96. —– disallow unsafe programs by requiring that every variable in the head of a rule must also appear in the body.
Answer: Database systems
Q97. —– is a powerful and widely used method for representing common characteristics among entities while preserving their differences.
Answer: Generalization
Q98. —– unique to a category, are assigned to the appropriate subtype.
Answer: Attributes
Q99. A generalization hierarchy can either be overlapping or —–
Answer: disjoint
Q100. In an —– hierarchy an entity instance can be part of multiple subtypes.
Answer: overlapping
Q101. A transaction may fail because of hardware or a —– failure.
Answer: software
Q102. The modifications made to the data is called —–
Answer: log
Q103. —– systems guarantee that the failure of a single disk will not result in loss of data.
Answer: RAID
Q104. —– failure occurred in the midst of transfer, and the destination block has incorrect information.
Answer: Partial
Q105. RAM stands for —–
Answer: Random Access Memory
Q106. A database buffer can be implemented either, in an area of real main-memory reserved for the database, or in the —–
Answer: virtual memory
Q107. Non-volatile storage such as —–
Answer: magnetic disks or tapes
Q108. The recovery manager, stores the modifications made onto a storage which does not react to system failures. Such storage is called —–
Answer: stable storage
Q109. —– analyses the buffer pool to identify the active transactions and dirty pages.
Answer: Analysis phase
Q110. —– failure occurred sufficiently early during the transfer that the destination block remains intact.
Answer: Total
Q111. RDBMS stands for:
(a) Relative Database Management System
(b) Relational Database Management System
(c) Relative Document Management System
(d) Relational Document Management System
Answer: (b) Relational Database Management System
Q112. CPU stands for
(a) Central Processing Unit
(b) Control Processing Unit
(c) Central Power Unit
(d) Central Power Utilization
Answer: (a) Central Processing Unit
Q113. Cost is generally measured as total elapsed time for answering the —–
Answer: query
Q114. The I/O cost depends on the —–
Answer: search criteria
Q115. —– is applicable when the selection is an equality comparison on the attribute on which file is ordered.
Answer: Binary search
Q116. —– search retrieves a single record that satisfies the corresponding equality condition.
Answer: Primary index-scan for equality
Q117. Index scans can replace file scans if the join is an —–
Answer: equi-join
Q118. The —– is applicable to equi-joins and natural joins only.
Answer: merge-join
Q119. A join with a —– can be calculated either by using the nested loop or block nested loop join
Answer: disjunctive condition
Q120. —– use equivalence rules to systematically generate expressions equivalent to the given expression.
Answer: Query optimisers
Q121. —– main architectures have been proposed for building parallel DBMSs.
Answer: Three
Q122. MPP stands for —–
Answer: massively parallel systems
Q123. —– helps systems scale in performance by making optimal use of hardware resources.
Answer: Parallel execution
Q124. —– parallelism does not provide speedup, because each query is still executed by only one processor.
Answer: Inter-query
Q125. In —– applications, each query is independent and takes a relatively short time to execute.
Answer: Online Transaction Processing (OLTP)
Q126. Intra-query parallelism is very beneficial in —– applications, which often have complex, long-running queries.
Answer: Decision Support System (DSS)
Q127. The basic problem with the shared-memory and shared-disk architectures is —–
Answer: interference
Q128. The —– architecture requires more extensive reorganization of the DBMS code.
Answer: shared-nothing
Q129. SMP stands for —–
Answer: Symmetric multiprocessing
Q130. —– is used to allow user to access tools to refer to the appropriate partition.
Answer: Meta data
Q131. URL stands for:
(a) Uniform Resource Location
(b) Uniform Resource Locator
(c) Uniform Region Locator
(d) Uniform Region Location
Answer: (b) Uniform Resource Locator
Q132. CGI stands for
(a) Common Gateway Interface
(b) Communication Gateway Interface
(c) Common Gateway interchange
(d Communication Gateway Interchange
Answer: (a) Common Gateway Interface
Q133. ODBC stands for
(a) Open Database Communication
(b) Open Database Connectivity
(c) Open Database Connection
(d) Open Document Connectivity
Answer: (c) Open Database Connection
Q134. —– performs data integration tasks.
Answer: Data Administrator
Q135. Data administrators —– from the business perspective and must have an understanding of the business to be truly effective.
Answer: view data
Q136. —– is the one area in which the Oracle DBA probably spends most of his or her time.
Answer: Performance tuning
Q137. The Web is the cornerstone of —–
Answer: electronic commerce
Q138. A Web Database follows the —– database model.
Answer: client-server
Q139. The use of a —– to invoke a program at a remote site leads us to the role of databases on the Web.
Answer: Web browser
Q140. The —– is an incredibly useful tool because it abstracts away the need to learn how to communicate with every type of database out there.
Answer: DBI Module
