Business Communication Objective Set 1

Online MCQ Business Communication Assignment

Online MCQ Business Communication Assignment for your amity mba bba courses, ignou mba, imt cdl, smu and upes management program. This is important online mcq question answer for various distance learning program.

Q1: The functions of communication are to inform, to persuade, and to promote goodwill with those inside and outside the organisation 

Answer

Answer: True – Correct

Q2: Self-reflection, planning, interpreting ideas, and taking time to think are features of intrapersonal communication 

Answer

Answer: True – Correct

Q3: Feedback, an essential part of interpersonal communication, is not considered in Schramm’s models of communication 

Answer

Answer: Wrong – False

Q4: The temporal aspect of context refers to the time of day that the communication took place 

Answer

Answer: Wrong – False

Q5: The internet was traditionally used for generating conversations with stakeholders and fostering networking 

Answer

Answer: Wrong – False

Q6: LinkedIn users care more about identity, reputation, and relationships than YouTube users 

Answer

Answer: True – Correct

Q7: The main barriers to inclusive practices at work are employees’ attitudes and behaviours 

Answer

Answer: Wrong – False

Q8: Vertically organised hierarchical structures are more efficient than horizontal structures 

Answer

Answer: Wrong – False

Q9: Those who think that they are doing what they have to do and have no other choice are guilty of falling into the rationalization trap when making ethical decisions 

Answer

Answer: Wrong – False

Q10: Which of the following best defines communication 

Answer

Answer: Any verbal or nonverbal behaviour, intentional or unintentional, that is perceived by another.

Q11: The seven elements of the process model of communication are 

Answer

Answer: sender, receiver, channel, message, interference, feedback and context.

Q12: Perception is the process by which people 

Answer

Answer: select, organise and interpret data in order to give meaning to a message.

Q13: Which of the following is not true about feedback 

Answer

Answer: It is always automatic and unprompted.

Q14: Which one of the following statements is the most accurate 

Answer

Answer: Communication barriers arise when the sender assumes that the receiver will automatically understand the message.

Q15: Which of the following are not examples of social media 

Answer

Answer: Webinar

Q16: On Fridays your children will be waiting alone at the bus-stop unless you leave work 20 minutes early. You cannot afford a decrease in salary and your boss rarely returns from a long lunch on Fridays. Which ethical trap/s could result from this conflict 

Answer

Answer: The rationalisation trap
The doctrine-of-relative-filth trap.
The false necessity trap.
All these

Q17: Junior members of staff are working long unpaid hours on a project because profits are down and the project promises to fund three full-time positions. They do not complain, although two seek treatment for stress-related illness. Identify the major cause or causes of illegal or unethical behaviour in this scenario 

Answer

Answer: Excessive emphasis on profits.
Unwillingness to take a stand about what is right.
Uncertainty about whether an action is wrong.
All of these

Q18: Which principle or principles of professional communication promotes or promote sensitivity to cultural values and beliefs 

Answer

Answer: The professional communication is in good taste.

Q19: Which of the following are the seven functional building blocks that underpin effective social media engagement 

Answer

Answer: identity, conversations, sharing, presence, relationships, reputation, and groups

Q20: Which of the following is not a barrier to communication 

Answer

Answer: Demonstration of empathy.

Q21: Nonverbal communication is either personal to the individual, common to a group or culture, or universal to mankind 

Answer

Answer: Wrong – False

Q22: Nonverbal cues are produced at the level of conscious awareness 

Answer

Answer: Wrong – False

Q23: Only a limited portion of the meaning is conveyed through what is said in high-context cultures 

Answer

Answer: True – Correct

Q24: Vocal characteristics are the intensity and pitch of the voice 

Answer

Answer: Wrong – False

Q25: Nonverbal communication is always consciously observable 

Answer

Answer: Wrong – False

Q26: Active listeners give empathetic feedback and identify with the speaker’s feelings and emotional needs 

Answer

Answer: Wrong – False

Q27: An effective listener should reconstruct messages to reflect their own attitude, and look for pauses when the speaker can be interrupted 

Answer

Answer: Wrong – False

Q28: The STAAAR acronym is used for positive feedback that confirms behaviour or outcomes 

Answer

Answer: Wrong – False

Q29: Open questions elicit a yes or no answer 

Answer

Answer: Wrong – False

Q30: Active listening is best described as 

Answer

Answer: empathetic listening without two-way emotional involvement to the verbal and nonverbal components of a message.

Q31: Verbal and nonverbal messages should match because 

Answer

Answer: together they contribute to the total message.

Q32: Universal nonverbal communication refers to 

Answer

Answer: body movements common to humankind such as tears or a smile.

Q33: The part of language associated with how something is said rather than with what is said is called 

Answer

Answer: paralanguage.

Q34: Which of the following is a set of the seven aspects of nonverbal behaviour 

Answer

Answer: Kinesics, physical characteristics, touching behaviour, paralanguage, proximity, artefacts and environment.

Q35: Which category of body movement would describe a deliberate physical invitation to continue speaking, such as a head nod 

Answer

Answer: Regulator

Q36: Angry words spoken in a calm voice with a smiling face are most likely to convey 

Answer

Answer: Happiness

Q37: When listening reflectively, the type of feedback statement that specifically helps the speaker focus on their feelings is 

Answer

Answer: reflective

Q38: Which response is not a feature of feedforward 

Answer

Answer: summarises discussion

Q39: Which of the following is not a characteristic of assertive behaviour 

Answer

Answer: makes decisions for others

Q40: In an effective performance appraisal, manager and employee apply which relationship management skills 

Answer

Answer: self-awareness, self-management, situational awareness and assertion

Q41: If you hone in only to that part of a conversation that interests you, you are guilty of being which type of poor listener 

Answer

Answer: Bee

Q42: People who are emotionally aware, know how they feel and are able to use those feelings to make decisions in life 

Answer

Answer: True – Correct

Q43: The emotional competencies that are the basis of emotional intelligence are self-awareness, regulation, motivation, social skills, and sympathy 

Answer

Answer: Wrong – False

Q44: ‘Self’ is a solid, static concept based on our mental image of ourselves 

Answer

Answer: Wrong – False

Q45: The more negative the organisation’s communication climate is, the less the amount of self-disclosure will occur 

Answer

Answer: True – Correct

Q46: People with high esteem are likely to think well of others 

Answer

Answer: True – Correct

Q47: Empathetic people feel sorry for someone but often can’t relate to the situation that person is in 

Answer

Answer: Wrong – False

Q48: Self-disclosure requires people to reveal intimate details about themselves and their past 

Answer

Answer: Wrong – False

Q49: The size of the quadrants in the Johari window varies as people learn or disclose more about themselves 

Answer

Answer: True – Correct

Q50: A person’s IQ is as important as their EQ in a business environment 

Answer

Answer: Wrong – False

Q51: People who operate in emotional management are able to 

Answer

Answer: Know the implications of social acts on feelings and are willing to regulate emotion in self and others.

Q52: Which of the following are the competencies required for effective relationship management 

Answer

Answer: developing others, inspirational leadership, change catalyst, influence, conflict management, teamwork and collaboration

Q53: A positive self-concept arises from 

Answer

Answer: positive self-evaluation, self-esteem, self-respect and self-acceptance

Q54: In the Johari Window, the hidden areainvolves 

Answer

Answer: those areas about which you are aware, but hide from others.

Q55: Personal competence in emotional intelligence means we must 

Answer

Answer: be self-aware, regulate our behaviour, and be self-motivated.

Q56: Jane is in a meeting. She is getting upset at the continual interruption of the proceedings by another attendee. She is not the Chairperson, and is not in a position to make a comment, but she knows that she will explode if she doesn’t take a break. She quietly excuses herself so she can leave the room, get a drink, and calm down before she returns. What is she demonstrating 

Answer

Answer: That she is aware of her feelings and has a strategy to deal with the situation.

Q57: Social awareness is based on which following competencies when managing relationships 

Answer

Answer: empathy, service orientation, developing others, leveraging diversity and political awareness.

Q58: John is Diane’s supervisor. John is aware that Diane is struggling at home due to the terminal illness of her partner. Diane has no official leave left. John puts himself in Diane’s shoes and negotiates extended deadlines on projects, as well as allowing Diane flexible work hours and an ability to work from home on a regular basis. What is John demonstrating toward Diane 

Answer

Answer: empathy.

Q59: Diane is going for an interview. She doesn’t believe she has any chance of securing the job, and expects to perform badly. She doesn’t get the job. What has happened 

Answer

Answer: Diane was subject to a self-fulfilling prophecy.

Q60: Collaboration is the settlement of differences through concessions 

Answer

Answer: Wrong – False

Q61: Legitimate power is based on an individual’s particular skills and strengths 

Answer

Answer: Wrong – False

Q62: Accommodation is a negotiation option used when one party is willing to be obliging 

Answer

Answer: True – Correct

Q63: Fear of conflict or confrontation is an example of a physical barrier to negotiation 

Answer

Answer: Wrong – False

Q64: Diversionary tactics are those commonly used by self-protecting negotiators to hide true feelings and ideas 

Answer

Answer: True – Correct

Q65: Tension is a level of conflict where behaviour and normal functioning are affected 

Answer

Answer: Wrong – False

Q66: The compromising style of conflict-handling indicates a high concern for both their own and the other party’s needs 

Answer

Answer: Wrong – False

Q67: Role conflict occurs when there are differing expectations about what someone is required to do as part of their role 

Answer

Answer: True – Correct

Q68: Empathy blockers have a positive effect on communication 

Answer

Answer: Wrong – False

Q69: Assertive behaviour is based on domination and often leads to conflict resolution 

Answer

Answer: Wrong – False

Q70: The success triangle shows the flow response in a conflict situation 

Answer

Answer: True – Correct

Q71: Judgement is a useful tool for a mediator when assessing how parties may benefit from mediation 

Answer

Answer: Wrong – False

Q72: Most mediations are successful 

Answer

Answer: Wrong – False

Q73: Negotiation is a process in which 

Answer

Answer: two or more parties try to resolve differences, make joint decisions and come to an agreement.

Q74: In the lose-win strategy 

Answer

Answer: one party withdraws or makes concessions to achieve a negotiated outcome.

Q75: The five steps to negotiating an agreement using the interest-based negotiation approach involve 

Answer

Answer: defining the issue, identifying the interests, creating options, agreeing on criteria, and selecting options.

Q76: Which of the following is not a feature of interest-based negotiation 

Answer

Answer: considers the relationship and issue as being integrated, and aims to trade off the relationship to gain the position or vice-versa.

Q77: Which of the following is not a barrier to agreement 

Answer

Answer: Having an opinion.

Q78: The five levels of conflict are 

Answer

Answer: discomfort, incident, misunderstanding, tension and crisis.

Q79: Jo, a state manager of a retail chain, has just been offered a promotion to national manager of the company. At the same time, he has also been offered the position of state manager with the largest competitor in the industry. The latter position involves better pay but less autonomy. Both offers are appealing. What type of conflict is he experiencing 

Answer

Answer: Avoidance/approach

Q80: The purpose of the flow response to conflict is to 

Answer

Answer: acknowledge the situation and to respond in an appropriate manner.

Q81: In the drama triangle, the rescuers 

Answer

Answer: offer support while denying their own needs.

Q82: ‘I’ messages are assertive statements that 

Answer

Answer: send a clear message about what the speaker wants while showing respect for the rights of others.

Q83: People who wait for others to initiate the negotiation process before they reveal their feelings and ideas are using 

Answer

Answer: the self-bargaining negotiation style.

Q84: Which of the following is not included in the Four R Method to moving out of crisis 

Answer

Answer: Respond.

Q85: Reframing increases the chance of a win-win solution in conflict resolution because 

Answer

Answer: Fosters a constructive approach to understanding the causes of conflict.
It avoids value-laden language and removes bias or judgement.
It enables the parties to establish that they understand one another’s point of view.
All these

Q86: Organisations that make greater use of policies, rules and organisation charts can be labelled organic 

Answer

Answer: Wrong – False

Q87: Division of labour and a clearly defined organisational system are features of a bureaucracy 

Answer

Answer: True – Correct

Q88: A ‘new’ network comprises members selected across an organisation’s functions, locations and hierarchy 

Answer

Answer: Wrong – False

Q89: When top management gives a group almost total freedom to complete a task, we describe the structure as free-form 

Answer

Answer: True – Correct

Q90: An organisation with a flattened structure and authority based on expertise is referred to as an organic organisation 

Answer

Answer: True – Correct

Q91: The chain communication network is an example of a formal communication network 

Answer

Answer: True – Correct

Q92: Social networking replaces face-to-face contact such as attending conferences and seminars 

Answer

Answer: Wrong – False

Q93: A liaison person bridges links between two organisational groups and is a member of the groups 

Answer

Answer: Wrong – False

Q94: A gatekeeper receives information from a liaison person and decides whether to pass the information on 

Answer

Answer: True – Correct

Q95: The development of group emotional intelligence is dependent on the establishment of organisational norms in interactions between the organisation, group leader and group members 

Answer

Answer: Wrong – False

Q96: Which of the following are organisational goals 

Answer

Answer: Low absenteeism, profit and production of quality goods.

Q97: The advantages of an informal structure include 

Answer

Answer: faster action, higher productivity, and more job satisfaction.

Q98: A mechanistic structure is best used when 

Answer

Answer: the environment is stable and highly structured.

Q99: Which of the following is not one of the five most important formal small group communication networks 

Answer

Answer: The rectangle network.

Q100: What are the four main purposes of communication in the workplace 

Answer

Answer: To motivate employees, to balance individual and organisational needs, to control employees, and to manage knowledge.

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