QN1: Which of the following is not a function of budgeting?
a. Decision making
b. Controlling
c. Planning
d. Motivating
QN2: The term “budgetary period” relates to:
a. The period in which the budget is finalised
b. The period for which the budget is prepared
c. The subdivisions of the main budget
d. A specific year for which the budget has been prepared
QN3: A budget is “accepted” by a manager when they:
a. Agree to it verbally
b. Are consulted by top management
c. Relate it to their own personal objectives
d. Receive the budget in writing
QN4: What functional role do management accountants play in the budgeting process?
a. They audit the financial statements
b. They set targets for other managers
c. They decide what bonuses should be paid to the staff
d. They facilitate and co-ordinate the budgeting process
QN5: A fixed budget is:
a. A budget that never changes
b. A budget that itemises the fixed costs of a department
c. A budget that ignores inflation
d. A budget that is set for a specified level of activity
QN6: A flexible budget is:
a. A budget that will be changed at the end of the month in order to reflect the actual costs of a department
b. A budget that is constantly being changed
c. A budget that comprises variable costs only
d. A budget that is adjusted to reflect different costs at different activity levels
QN7: A company has sales in units of 2,600. There are 1,400 units of opening stock while the closing stock is planned to be 1,800 units. What production is needed to satisfy sales?
a. 3,000 units
b. 2,200 units
c. 2,437 units
d. 2,600 units
QN8: Which of the following will NOT appear in a cash budget?
a. Depreciation of machinery
b. Machinery bought on hire purchase
c. Wages
d. Sales revenue
QN9: The budgeted sales for the next four quarters are £192,000, £288,000, £288,000 and £336,000, respectively. It is estimated that sales will be paid for as follows: 75% of the total will be paid in the quarter that the sales were made. Of the balance 50% will be paid in the quarter after the sale was made. The remaining 50% will be paid in the quarter after this. The amount of cash received in quarter 3 will be:
a. £144,000
b. £240,000
c. £324,000
d. £276,000
QN10: If actual output is lower than budgeted output which of the following costs would you expect to
be lower than the original budget?
a. Total variable costs
b. Total fixed costs
c. Variable costs per unit
d. Fixed costs per unit
QN11: When a production budget is being prepared the quantity that needs to be produced is calculated
by the following equation:
a. Opening stock plus quantity sold plus closing stock
b. Quantity sold plus closing stock less opening stock
c. Opening stock less quantity sold
d. Opening stock less quantity sold plus closing stock
QN12: The master budget will comprise:
a. The cash budget, the budgeted profit and loss account and the budgeted balance sheet
b. The budgeted profit and loss account and the budgeted balance sheet
c. All the production, selling and cost budgets for the organisation
d. The cash budget
QN13: It is generally believed that the first step in the formal market segmentation process is to:
a. Identify bases for segmenting the market.
b. Develop a measure of segment attractiveness.
c. Identify target market segments.
d. Develop segment profiles.
QN14: The ___ process is the process of evaluating each market segment’s attractiveness and selecting one or more segments to enter.
a. Market Targeting
b. Market Differentiation
c. Market Segmentation
d. Market Positioning
QN15: If a marketer wanted to set a competitive position for a product and follow this with a detailed marketing mix that would be appropriate to that position, the process would be called:
a. Market Segmentation.
b. Market Positioning.
c. Market Differentiation.
d. Market Targeting.
QN16: If a market were to be reduced from a very large market to a very small or customized one, what would be the second step or level of this reduction process?
a. Mass Market.
b. Segment Marketing.
c. Micromarketing.
d. Niche Marketing.
QN17: Which of the following would be a benefit of segment marketing with respect to mass marketing?
a. It offers smaller companies the opportunity to compete by focusing on overlooked markets.
b. It creates the largest potential market.
c. It allows a company to conduct local and individualized marketing to attract customers.
d. The company can market more effectively by fine tuning its products, prices, and programs to the needs of carefully defined segments.
QN18: If an automobile company through its segmentation process were to focus on specialized subsegments of the SUV market, such as standard SUVs and luxury SUVs, ___ would be the probable segmentation process being followed.
a. Segment Marketing
b. Micromarketing
c. Niche Marketing
d. Macromarketing
QN19: Local marketing and individual marketing would be examples of which of the following forms of marketing?
a. Segment Marketing.
b. Micromarketing.
c. Niche Marketing.
d. Dual Marketing.
QN20: All of the following would be examples of demographic market segments EXCEPT:
a. Education.
b. Personality.
c. Generation.
d. Religion.
QN21: Multinational media companies frequently originate from
a. acquiring other companies.
b. mergers.
c. the opening of foreign branches.
d. all of these
QN22: Cultural imperialism occurs when
a. all of these.
b. the values of developed countries are imposed upon developing nations.
c. local indigenous cultures celebrate their own, unique cultural values.
d. countries invite a cultural exchange with other nations.
QN23: Which of the following countries ranks the highest in number of movie tickets purchased each year and feature-film production?
a. France
b. the United States
c. India
d. Japan
QN24: An example of a media outlet that has become a global brand name is
a. CNN.
b. Reader’s Digest.
c. Google.
d. all of these.
QN25: One of the earliest examples of international mass-media sales was
a. book exports and imports.
b. the Associated Press.
c. Netscape.
d. the BBC.
QN26: A key factor that has made rapid increases in media globalization possible is
a. all of these.
b. the internet.
c. vigorous attempts at government censorship of imported media.
d. resistance of cultural imperialism in favor of nationalistic segregation.
QN27: Which of the following news agencies is the biggest?
a. Associated Press
b. Interfax
c. Reuters
d. Agence France-Presse
QN28: A network in another nation attempts to adapt a popular American singing-competition show to feature local contestants and judges. Many critics regard this as an example of
a. U.S. cultural imperialism.
b. desirable international cooperation.
c. cultural resistance.
d. upward cultural transmission.
QN29: When a nation’s TV networks use a lot of U.S. television programming, the productivity and money-making opportunities for the country’s own local production companies are
a. unchanged.
b. helped.
c. hurt.
d. enhanced.
QN30: Which of the following is an example of transcultural enrichment?
a. newspapers in Morocco carry articles from neighboring Tunisia.
b. TV stations in Brazil broadcast a popular Colombian telenovela, or soap opera.
c. People in Thailand frequently tune to a radio station originating in nearby Laos.
d. all of these
QN31: The amount of use of different types of media in a particular country is affected by the country’s
a. cultural values.
b. all of these.
c. climate and geography.
d. economics.
QN32: The ruler of a country controls all of the radio and television stations in that nation. These stations are examples of
a. government media.
b. commercial media.
c. public media.
d. individual media.
QN33: The U.S. brand name for televised music videos, known around the world, is
a. AP.
b. BBC.
c. TVB.
d. MTV.
QN34: The incredibly popular film industry in India is known as
a. Cinemastan.
b. all of these.
c. Filmbodia.
d. Bollywood.
QN35: Authoritarian government has found it difficult to limit their citizen’s access to ____, which can be easily used to both receive and send global mass messages.
a. movies
b. the Internet
c. magazines
d. recorded music
QN36: Radio and television are popular in a country where a large percentage of the population cannot read. This is an example of the effect on media of
a. geography.
b. literacy.
c. climate.
d. technology.
QN37: The BBC’s most well-known programming is its
a. melodramatic musical productions.
b. politically liberal call-in talk shows.
c. news.
d. politically conservative call-in talk shows.
QN38: Efforts to overcome U.S. cultural imperialism in media programming include which of the following?
a. all of these.
b. joint programming between U.S. producers and those of audience nations.
c. government bans of imported U.S. programs in some nations.
d. government investment in local media programming in many nations.
QN39: People in many areas of a mountainous country cannot get very good broadcast television signals, so they rely on cable and telephone connections to the Internet for international news. This
is an example of the effect on media of
a. geography.
b. all of these.
c. cultural values.
d. literacy levels.
QN40: Media funded by a combination of citizen and government contributions, without use of advertising, are known as
a. government media.
b. individualized media.
c. political media.
d. public media.
QN41: The first television network to, in 1986, successfully break the dominance of the “Big Three” networks was
a. ESPN
b. PAX
c. Fox
d. WB
QN42: CATV stands for
a. Cat TV, a short-lived cable network featuring shows about cats.
b. copycat television, a term used for programs that imitate a popular formats.
c. community-access TV, low-power stations which the law requires be run by local volunteers.
d. community antenna TV, local cable systems used first to deliver broadcast TV in areas with poor reception.
QN43: All of the following are methods for delivering television programming EXCEPT
a. point-to-point equine relay.
b. over-air stations.
c. cable.
d. direct broadcast satellite.
QN44: Although the deadline has been repeatedly delayed, federal law requires television broadcasters
to switch soon from ____ to ___.
a. investigative news reporting; government propaganda dissemination
b. analog signals; digital transmission
c. over-air broadcasting; direct-broadcast satellite
d. violent programming; sexually-explicit programming
QN45: Television stations have lobbied the FCC for ten years of extra time in converting from traditional
to digital transmission because
a. they could not obtain the necessary equipment in time.
b. digital technology is not ready to be used.
c. all of these.
d. they did not want to give up the extra money they make by leasing bandwidth to telephone companies.
QN46: A television affiliate is
a. another term for a superstation.
b. a broadcast station that agrees to carry programming from a network.
c. a television executive in charge of developing new inter-media relationships
d. a new TiVo-like device for recording programs.
QN47: To television advertisers, a quality audience is one that
a. has all of these characteristics.
b. has no access to TiVo and therefore must watch commercials.
c. pays close attention to programming.
d. has high incomes.
QN48: Which of the following is a popular news show format?
a. newsmagazines
b. talk and tabloid shows
c. interview shows
d. all of these
QN49: Which of the following statements about public television is NOT correct?
a. Congress created the Corporation for Public Broadcasting in the 1960s to develop noncommercial programming.
b. The Public Broadcasting System, a network for noncommercial television stations, does not pay affiliates to carry its programming; instead, affiliates pay the network.
c. There have been ongoing Congressional debates about funding PBS, mostly led by ideological opponents and fiscal cost-cutters.
d. The greatest threat to PBS has been the encroachment of cable upon its core programming, including documentaries, nature shows, and British productions.
QN50: Current trends in television include which of the following?
a. time, space and advertising shifts
b. return to three-network dominance
c. more community gatherings for simultaneous viewing of prime-time programs
d. all of these
QN51: Cable companies deliver their programs using
a. all of these.
b. airwaves.
c. wires.
d. people meters.
QN52: In the early days of television, programs were
a. broadcast live, rather than recorded.
b. adapted from popular radio programs.
c. usually sponsored by a single advertiser.
d. all of these
QN53: Syndicated television programs are
a. comedies based on popular newspaper comic strips.
b. programs produced by cooperating groups of independent television stations for their own use.
c. dramas and reality shows about organized crime.
d. shows made available directly to TV stations, rather than distributed by networks.
QN54: Which of the following describes current governmental regulations concerning violent television programming.
a. Voluntary control by television companies is favored over laws regulating violent content.
b. all of these
c. Parents are required to buy and use television sets with V-chips to regulate children’s viewing.
d. Violence and “unkind words” are banned in all animated children’s cartoons.
QN55: Superstations make use of which of the following television delivery technologies?
a. cable
b. satellite
c. all of these
d. over-the-air broadcast
QN56: After revelations in the 1950s about corruption in their making, there was a steep decline in the popularity of which kind of television show?
a. soap operas
b. Congressional hearings
c. quiz shows
d. new broadcasts
QN57: A nonprofit service funded by the cable industry to show programming of political and government actions is called
a. C-SPAN.
b. CATV.
c. CPB.
d. CNN.
QN58: Receiver dishes for direct-broadcast satellite television delivery are about the size of
a. a man’s wedding ring.
b. an Olympic swimming pool.
c. a jelly doughnut.
d. a large pizza.
QN59: Entertainment shows on television tend to follow several popular formulas because
a. the educational brochures and classes needed to help audiences understand a new type of show are too expensive to produce.
b. it is less expensive to produce an all-new show than to imitate or copy an alreadypopular format.
c. advertisers are reluctant to risk money on new, unproven types of programming.
d. critics drive audiences away from innovative or creative shows.
QN60: Deregulation in ownership laws in the 1990s allowed
a. media conglomerates to buy both broadcast and cable systems.
b. cable companies to buy broadcast stations.
c. telecommunication companies to buy cable companies.
d. all of these.
QN61: In terms of use and advertising revenue, the largest news medium is
a. newspapers.
b. the Internet.
c. television.
d. radio.
QN62: Most American newspapers are owned today by
a. newspaper groups or chains.
b. cooperative journalistic organizations.
c. city governments.
d. wealthy individuals or families.
QN63: Which of the following is a disadvantage of group, or chain, newspaper ownership?
a. An emphasis on profits can result in cost-cutting measures that affect the newspapers’ quality.
b. Newspapers may become standardized and lose their local distinctiveness.
c. Absentee owners may have no long-term stake in the newspaper’s community.
d. All of these.
QN64: Which of the following is a feature of USA Today?
a. a flexible format
b. snappy visuals
c. lengthy articles
d. in-depth political analysis
QN65: The preference of newspaper chains or groups to acquire newspapers in geographically adjoining areas is known as
a. herding.
b. clustering.
c. Tacoding.
d. focus grouping.
QN66: All of the following are challenges facing daily newspapers EXCEPT
a. meeting the needs of an increasingly diverse audience.
b. declining circulation.
c. providing comprehensive coverage of local and regional news.
d. meeting the needs of younger readers.
QN67: Although newspapers are increasingly moving toward this small size, many owners prefer to avoid the stigma-laden word
a. laptop.
b. handbill.
c. tabloid.
d. broadsheet.
QN68: Which of the following populations is most likely to lack a newspaper targeted to its interests?
a. gay, lesbian and transgender people
b. non-English speakers
c. rural residents
d. African Americans
QN69: What is the most significant data related to a newspaper’s marketplace success?
a. penetration
b. paper and production costs
c. circulation
d. advertising revenue
QN70: In the years since World War II, the number of African American newspapers has
a. tripled.
b. decreased some.
c. dwindled to nearly zero.
d. steadily increased.
QN71: Which of the following is an indictor of quality and credibility in a newspaper?
a. There is a large news hole, the area not used for advertisements.
b. Coverage shows little evidence of reporters’ biases.
c. There is extensive, thorough, and accurate local coverage.
d. All of these
QN72: Media that cater to the interests of majority, middle-of-the road groups are called
a. financial media.
b. mainstream media.
c. alternative media.
d. regulatory media.
QN73: Some observers believe that ____ will eliminate newspapers as a print medium.
a. magazines
b. public access cable channels
c. the Internet
d. news radio
QN74: Circulation of Spanish-language newspapers in the United States today is
a. strong and growing.
b. financially unprofitable.
c. nearly nonexistent.
d. illegal.
QN75: The Internet is well-suited to provide strong competition for which traditional newspaper money-maker?
a. paid subscriptions
b. classified advertising
c. all of these.
d. comics
QN76: Over the past fifty years, the penetration percentages of American newspapers have
a. increased greatly.
b. increased slowly.
c. stayed about the same.
d. decreased greatly.
QN77: How many daily newspapers serve most major metropolitan areas in the United States today?
a. two
b. one
c. zero
d. ten or more
QN78: Which of the following daily newspapers is read by a national audience?
a. The Wall Street Journal
b. The New York Times
c. USA Today
d. all of these
QN79: Most U.S. teenagers today view newspapers as
a. essential daily reading.
b. highly responsive to their needs and interests.
c. easily replaced by other news sources.
d. actually harmful to their health.
QN80: Newspaper graphics serve to
a. attract reader attention.
b. succinctly summarize data.
c. simplify complex information.
d. do all of these.
QN81: A sales promotion which a manufacturer provides to a wholesaler is an example of:
a. A new-product promotion.
b. An intermediary promotion.
c. A trade promotion.
d. None of these
QN82: Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a retailer promotion?
a. Increase frequency of purchases.
b. Gain more shelf space.
c. Increase store loyalty.
d. None of these
QN83: On-pack coupons are an example of:
a. Money-based sales promotion.
b. Self-liquidating sales promotions.
c. Invitation sales promotions.
d. All of these
QN84: What does BOGOFF stand for?
a. Buy One Get One For Free.
b. Beginning of Great Offer.
c. Bought on Good Offers
d. None of these
QN85: On-pack samples are an example of:
a. Trade promotions.
b. Manufacturer’s promotions.
c. Retailer promotions.
d. All of these
QN86: A promotion which invites customers to pay a small amount of money,. Together with some proof
of purchase, is called:
a. A loyalty scheme.
b. A retailers’ promotion.
c. A self-liquidating promotion.
d. None of these
QN87: A free gift attached to the outside of a pack is called:
a. In-pack promotion.
b. Gift pack promotion.
c. On-pack promotion.
d. None of these
QN88: A display in the retail outlet is called:
a. Retailer promotion.
b. Point-of-sale display.
c. In-store promotion.
d. None of these
QN89: An offer to a retailer of a discount in exchange for a larger order is called:
a. Count and recount.
b. Volume allowance.
c. Discount overrider.
d. None of these
QN90: An manufacturer’s advertisement stating where goods can be bought is an example of:
a. Merchandising allowance.
b. Retailer promotion.
c. Co-operative advertising.
d. None of these
QN91: The cost of handling a campaign and financing the offers is called:
a. Communication cost.
b. Fulfilment cost.
c. Fixed cost.
d. All of these
QN92: The cost of artwork, printing, media support and distribution is called:
a. Fulfilment cost.
b. Fixed cost.
c. Communication cost.
d. None of these
QN93: Changes in consumer behaviour as a result of a promotion can be measured by:
a. Retail audits.
b. Consumer audits.
c. Sales force feedback.
d. None of these
QN94: An individual case bonus is an example of:
a. Retailer’s promotion.
b. Manufacturer’s promotion.
c. Trade promotion.
d. None of these
QN95: Airline frequent-flyer schemes are an example of:
a. Sweepstake.
b. Loyalty schemes
c. BOGOFF.
d. None of these
QN96: Which of the following is not an objective of sales promotion?
a. Encouraging customers away from competitive offerings
b. Generating customer trial of new products
c. Increasing brand awareness
d. Holding and rewarding loyal customers
QN97: Which of the following is not a sales promotion tool?
a. Samples
b. Cash-back offers
c. Advertising specialties
d. None of the above
QN98: ___, preapproach, ____, presentation and demonstration, ___, closing and ___ are the steps in the selling process.
a. Prospecting and qualifying, approach, handling objections
b. Prospecting and qualifying, approach, criticising competitors’ products, follow-up
c. Meeting customers, approach, handling objections, follow-up
d. Prospecting and qualifying, approach, handling objections, follow-up
QN99:____ marketing emphasises building and maintaining long-term customer relationships
by creating superior value.
a. Target
b. Transaction
c. Relationship
d. Mass
QN100: Salespeople spend most of their time ___.
a. Waiting/travelling
b. Face-to-face selling
c. Doing administrative tasks
d. Making service calls
Q101. Familiar products such as airtel are more likely to use?
Informative advertising
Persuasive advertising
Comparative advertising
Reminder Advertising
Answer
Comparative advertising
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