Multiple choice question for engineering
Set 1
1. How many stages are there in Risk-driven requirements specification?
a) three
b) four
c) five
d) six
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] These include Risk identification, Risk analysis, Risk reduction and Risk decomposition
2. Consider a case where the system is unavailable and cannot deliver its services to users. What type of failure is being described here?
a) Loss of service
b) Incorrect service delivery
c) System/data corruption
d) None of the mentioned
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] One may separate this into loss of critical services and loss of non-critical services, where the consequences of a failure in non-critical services are less than the consequences of critical service failure.
3. Consider a case where the failure of the system causes damage to the system itself or it data. What type of failure is being described here?
a) Loss of service
b) Incorrect service delivery
c) System/data corruption
d) None of the mentioned
Answer
Answer: c
4. POFOD stands for
a) Possibility of failure of data
b) Probability of failure of data
c) Possibility of failure on demand
d) Probability of failure on demand
Answer
Answer: d
5. Which reliability metric sets out the probable number of system failures that are likely to be observed relative to a certain time period?
a) POFOD
b) ROCOF
c) AVAIL
d) None of the mentioned
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] Rate of occurrence of failures (ROCOF) sets out the probable number of system failures that are likely to be observed relative to the number of system executions.
6. Which of the following is not a functional reliability requirement for a system?
a) Checking requirements
b) Recovery requirements
c) Redundancy requirements
d) Ambiguous requirements
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] All the options are correct except option d.
7. To specify security requirements, one should identify the risks that are to be dealt with.
a) True
b) False
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] To specify security requirements, one should identify the assets that are to be dealt with.
8. The aim of preliminary risk analysis and assessment process is to derive security requirements for the system as a whole.
a) True
b) False
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] In preliminary risk analysis stage, decisions on the detailed system requirements, the system design, or the implementation technology have not been made.
9. At which stage of risk analysis specification, the additional security requirements take account of the technologies used in building the system and system design and implementation decisions?
a) Preliminary risk analysis
b) Life-cycle risk analysis
c) Operational risk analysis
d) All of the mentioned
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] This risk assessment takes place during the system development life cycle after design choices have been made..
10. Which reliability requirements are concerned with maintaining copies of the system?
a) Checking requirements
b) Recovery requirements
c) Redundancy requirements
d) Ambiguous requirements
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] These requirements are geared to helping the system recover after a failure has occurred.
Set 2
1. Which of the following UML diagrams has a static view?
a) Collaboration
b) Use case
c) State chart
d) Activity
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] A use case diagrams captures only the functionality of the system whereas a dynamic model/view captures the functions as well as the action.
2. What type of core-relationship is represented by the symbol in the figure below?
a) Aggregation
b) Dependency
c) Generalization
d) Association
Answer
Answer: a
3. Which core element of UML is being shown in the figure?
a) Node
b) Interface
c) Class
d) Component
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] The figure is self explanatory. A component is a modular, significant and replaceable part of the system that packages implementation and exposes a set of interfaces.
4. What type of relationship is represented by Shape class and Square ?
a) Realization
b) Generalization
c) Aggregation
d) Dependency
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] The generalization relationship is also known as the inheritance relationship. In the figure Square is the sub class of super class shape.
5. Which diagram in UML shows a complete or partial view of the structure of a modeled system at a specific time?
a) Sequence Diagram
b) Collaboration Diagram
c) Class Diagram
d) Object Diagram
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] An object diagram focuses on some particular set of object instances and attributes, and the links between the instances. It is a static snapshot of a dynamic view of the system.
6. Interaction Diagram is a combined term for
a) Sequence Diagram + Collaboration Diagram
b) Activity Diagram + State Chart Diagram
c) Deployment Diagram + Collaboration Diagram
d) None of the mentioned
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] Interaction diagram are used to formalize the dynamic behavior of the system.
7. Structure diagrams emphasize the things that must be present in the system being modeled.
a) True
b) False
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] Since structure diagrams represent the structure they are used extensively in documenting the architecture of software systems
8. Which of the following diagram is time oriented?
a) Collaboration
b) Sequence
c) Activity
d) None of the mentioned
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] A sequence diagrams timeline along which tasks are completed.
Set 3
1. Which of the following is a category of a stimuli?
a) Periodic stimuli
b) Software stimuli
c) Hardware stimuli
d) Management stimuli
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] Periodic stimuli occur at predictable time intervals. For example, the system may examine a sensor every 50 milliseconds and take action depending on that sensor value.
2. Which of the following activities may be included in a real-time software design process?
a) Platform selection
b) Timing analysis
c) Process design
d) All of the mentioned
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] All these can be implemented.
3. Which of the following is not a real-time architectural pattern
a) Observe and React
b) Environmental Control
c) Embedded System
d) Process Pipeline
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] Embedded systems’ patterns are process-oriented rather than object- or component-oriented .
4. RTOS stands for
a) real-life operating system
b) real-time operating system
c) real-time operating software
d) real-life operating software
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] Embedded applications are built on top of a real-time operating system (RTOS).
5. The times by which stimuli must be processed and some response produced by the system is known as
a) Compile time
b) Frequency
c) Deadlines
d) Execution time
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] If the system does not meet a deadline then, it results in a system failure; in a soft real-time system, it results in degraded system service .
6. The switch to backup power must be completed within a deadline of
a) 50 ms
b) 55 ms
c) 70 ms
d) 100 ms
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] The time required to power failure stimuli is 50 millisecond.
7. An example of a system that may use a process pipeline is a _________
a) High-speed data acquisition system
b) Failure of a power supply in an embedded system
c) Both High-speed data acquisition system AND Failure of a power supply in an embedded system
d) None of the mentioned
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] Data acquisition systems collect data from sensors for subsequent processing and analysis. These systems are used in situations where the sensors are collecting a lot of data from the system’s environment and it isn’t possible or necessary to process that data in real time.
8. Periodic occur irregularly and unpredictably and are usually signaled using the computer’s interrupt mechanism.
a) True
b) False
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] This is the case for Aperiodic stimuli
9. If you detect power failure by monitoring a voltage level, you have to make more than one observation to detect that the voltage is dropping.
a) True
b) False
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] If you run the process 250 times per second, this means that it runs every 4 ms and you may require up to two periods to detect the voltage drop.
10. The average execution time of the power monitor process should be less than
a) 1ms
b) 10ms
c) 100ms
d) none of the mentioned
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] General embedded software property.
Set 4
1. Which of the following uses empirically derived formulas to predict effort as a function of LOC or FP?
a) FP-Based Estimation
b) Process-Based Estimation
c) COCOMO
d) Both FP-Based Estimation and COCOMO
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] Function points and COCOMO are used to evaluate effort.
2. The empirical data that support most estimation models are derived from a vast sample of projects.
a) True
b) False
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] The emperical data is derived from a limited sample of projects. For this reason, no estimation model is appropriate for all classes of software and in all development environments.
3. COCOMO stands for
a) Constructive cost model
b) Comprehensive cost model
c) Constructive cost estimation model
d) Complete cost estimation model
Answer
Answer: a
4. Which version of COCOMO states that once requirements have been stabilized, the basic software architecture has been established?
a) Early design stage model
b) Post-architecture-stage model
c) Application composition model
d) All of the mentioned
Answer
Answer: a
5. Which model was used during the early stages of software engineering, when prototyping of user interfaces, consideration of software and system interaction, assessment of performance, and evaluation of technology maturity were paramount.
a) Early design stage model
b) Post-architecture-stage model
c) Application composition model
d) All of the mentioned
Answer
Answer: c
6. Which one is not a size measure for software product?
a) LOC
b) Halstead’s program length
c) Function Count
d) Cyclomatic Complexity
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] It is the part of white box testing.
7.COCOMO was developed initially by
a) B.Beizer
b) Rajiv Gupta
c) B.W.Bohem
d) Gregg Rothermal
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] Barry Boehm introduced a hierarchy of software estimation models bearing the name COCOMO, for COnstructive COst MOdel.
8. Estimation of size for a project is dependent on
a) Cost
b) Time
c) Schedule
d) None of the mentioned
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] Estimation depends on factors such as Fucntion points and LOC.
9. COCOMO-II was developed at
a) University of Texas
b) University of Southern California
c) MIT
d) IIT-Kanpur
Answer
Answer: b
10. Which one is not a stage of COCOMO-II?
a) Early design estimation model
b) Application Composition estimation model
c) Comprehensive cost estimation model
d) Post architecture estimation model
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] It was a part of COCOMO.
Set 5
1. Incremental development in Extreme Programming (XP) is supported through a system release once every month.
a) True
b) False
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] Incremental development is supported through small, frequent system releases.
2. In XP, as soon as the work on a task is complete, it is integrated into the whole system.
a) True
b) False
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] XP follows a continuous integration approach.After any such integration, all the unit tests in the system must pass.
3. In XP Increments are delivered to customers every _______ weeks.
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] Extreme Programming (XP) takes an ‘extreme’ approach to iterative development.New versions may be built several times per day, hence delivering the increment for approval every 2nd week after testing the new version.
4. User requirements are expressed as __________ in Extreme Programming.
a) implementation tasks
b) functionalities
c) scenarios
d) none of the mentioned
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] User requirements are expressed as scenarios or user stories.These are written on cards and the development team break them down into implementation tasks. These tasks are the basis of schedule and cost estimates.
5. Is a customer involved test development and validation in XP ?
a) Yes
b) No
c) It may vary from Customer to Customer
d) None of the mentioned
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] The role of the customer in the testing process is to help develop acceptance tests for the stories that are to be implemented in the next release of the system.However, people adopting the customer role have limited time available and so cannot work full-time with the development team. They may feel that providing the requirements was enough of a contribution and so may be reluctant to get involved in the testing process.
6. Programmers prefer programming to testing and sometimes they take short cuts when writing tests. For example, they may write incomplete tests that do not check for all possible exceptions that may occur.
a) True
b) False
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] In XP Some tests can be very difficult to write incrementally.For example, in a complex user interface, it is often difficult to write unit tests for the code that implements the ‘display logic’ and workflow between screens.
7. Tests are automated in Extreme Programming.
a) True
b) False
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] Automated test harnesses are used to run all component tests each time that a new release is built.
8. In XP an automated unit test framework is used to write tests for a new piece of functionality before that functionality itself is implemented.
a) True
b) False
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] XP follows Test-first development approach.
9. Developers work individually on a release and they compare their results with other developers before forwarding that release to customers.
a) True
b) False
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] XP follows the principle of pair programming which means developers work in pairs, checking each other’s work and providing the support to always do a good job.
10. Which four framework activities are found in the Extreme Programming(XP) ?
a) analysis, design, coding, testing
b) planning, analysis, design, coding
c) planning, design, coding, testing
d) planning, analysis, coding, testing
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] XP involves the mentioned four activities, and in the same in order.
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